The federated model of health information exchange architecture is best described as a model in which:_______.

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Answer 1

The federated model of health information exchange architecture is best described as a model in which: The health information exchange database only has a master patient index with unique patient identities, and data only exists within each institution's system.

What is Federated model of health?

Many healthcare organizations retain data that is exchanged using a federated approach, sometimes referred to as scattered or decentralized, and make it available upon request. The federated design, according to Mark Savage, senior counsel at Consumers Union, avoids the risks related to constructing a centralized database, which, if attacked, would disclose a tremendous amount of data.

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Related Questions

1. Emily Balcetis tells us that perception is subjective. What are some examples she gives to illustrate this point?

2. How can understanding how our eyes work help us understand how it’s possible for one person to look at something (a person, an object, or an event) and see something very different than somebody else?

3. Balcetis set out to better understand why some people may actually see exercise as more difficult while some see it as easier and how our mind’s eye relates to this. Briefly describe the first steps she took to explore this idea and her initial prediction. Was her prediction correct?

4. Explain why Balcetis and her team came up with the slogan, "Keep your eyes on the prize."

5. What was the big final question that Balcetis explored? What conclusions was she able to make after exploring this final question?

Answers

Emily Balcetis tells us that perception is subjective. A few examples given to illustrate this point are she once displays how the same image can convey different meanings by displaying results after showing a man's face, another such example is the perception of apple is different for those who are dieting compared to those who don't count calories. One more example is the count of people in the survey who actually voted for Obama or McCain and the pictures of Obama.

Perception is basically observing, there are various kinds of perception. There are many factors which influence perception such as internal and external factors. For internal factors: proximity, intensity other such things may be included while for external factors experiences, motives, interests and other such things are included.

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Answer:

1. Emily Balcetis tells us that perception is subjective, meaning that what we see is not always an accurate representation of reality. She gives several examples to illustrate this point, including:

* A photo of a man's face, which different people interpreted in different ways.

* A photo of a man's face, which different people interpreted in different ways. * A line drawing that could be seen as either a rabbit or a duck.

* A photo of a man's face, which different people interpreted in different ways. * A line drawing that could be seen as either a rabbit or a duck. * A hill that people perceived as being steeper or less steep depending on their motivation to climb it.

2. Understanding how our eyes work can help us understand how it's possible for one person to look at something and see something very different than somebody else. Our eyes are not perfect cameras, and they can be influenced by a variety of factors, such as our expectations, our emotions, and our prior experiences. These factors can all contribute to our subjective perception of the world around us.

3. Balcetis set out to better understand why some people may actually see exercise as more difficult while some see it as easier and how our mind’s eye relates to this. Her first step was to ask people to imagine themselves climbing a hill. She then asked them to rate how steep the hill seemed to them. She found that people who imagined themselves reaching the top of the hill more easily rated the hill as being less steep. This suggests that our mind’s eye can influence our perception of physical effort.

Balcetis’s initial prediction was that people who imagined themselves reaching the top of the hill more easily would also be more likely to actually climb the hill. This prediction was correct. In a follow-up study, Balcetis found that people who imagined themselves reaching the top of a hill more easily were more likely to actually try to climb the hill, and they were also more likely to succeed in climbing the hill.

4. Balcetis and her team came up with the slogan, "Keep your eyes on the prize," because they believe that our mind’s eye can play a powerful role in determining our success or failure. When we focus on our goals and imagine ourselves achieving them, we are more likely to persevere in the face of challenges. This is because our mind’s eye can help us to see the task as being less daunting and more achievable.

5. The big final question that Balcetis explored was whether our mind’s eye can actually change our physical reality. She found that it can, at least to a small degree. For example, people who imagined themselves reaching the top of a hill more easily were able to climb the hill slightly faster than people who did not imagine themselves reaching the top of the hill. This suggests that our mind’s eye can have a real-world impact on our performance.

Balcetis’s research has important implications for our understanding of motivation and performance. It suggests that our mind’s eye can play a powerful role in determining whether we succeed or fail. If we can learn to use our mind’s eye to our advantage, we can increase our chances of achieving our goals.

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Can I get a answer asap

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Answer:

I think the best answer should be the letter B

As part of the sds categories, first-aid measures include important symptoms/effects as well as ______________.

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As part of the SDS categories, first-aid measures include important symptoms/effects as well as required treatment.

Specific amounts of each nutrient that one needs to consume to maintain good health are?

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Specific amounts of each nutrient are required to maintain a good health, not more nor less.

Amount of nutrient consumption that is good

A person’s body cannot create everything it needs to function. Humans must consume the six essential components through their meals in order to maintain optimum health.

Essential nutrients are necessary for a person’s development, health, and capacity for reproduction.

This list of essential nutrients includes both macronutrients and micronutrients.

A person requires little levels of micronutrients. Micronutrients are made up of minerals and vitamins. Even though the body only needs traces of them, a deficiency could have harmful effects on health.

Macronutrients are nutrients that a person needs in higher proportions. Water, protein, carbs, and lipids are examples of macronutrients.

Find out more about these nutrients’ sources and their importance by reading on.

Vitamins, minerals, protein, lipids, water, and carbs are the six basic nutrients.

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A nurse is caring for a client undergoing treatment for bacterial vaginosis. which instruction should the nurse give the client to prevent recurrence of bacterial vaginosis?

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The instruction the nurse should give the client to prevent recurrence of bacterial vaginosis is to practice monogamy.

What is bacterial vaginosis?

Bacterial vaginosis is a condition which results as a result of the imbalance between the good and the harmful bacteria in the vagina.

Thus, in bacterial vaginosis, there is bacterial overgrowth in the vagina. Some symptoms of bacterial vaginosis include:

abnormal vaginal discharge,itchingodor

Bacterial vaginosis usually affects women of childbearing age.

Some causes of bacterial vaginosis include:

unprotected sexual intercoursemultiple sexual partnersfrequent douching

In conclusion, bacterial vaginosis occurs due to overgrowth of harmful bacteria in the vagina.

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A client is admitted to the hospital for a subtotal thyroidectomy. when discussing postoperative medication therapy with the client, which advice will the nurse include in the teaching?

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Report palpitations, nervousness, tremors, or loss of weight that may indicate an overdose of thyroid hormone.

What occurs when thyroid hormone levels are high?Hyperthyroidism occurs when your thyroid produces an excessive amount of the hormone thyroxine (overactive thyroid). Hyperthyroidism can cause your metabolism to speed up, resulting in rapid weight loss and a fast or irregular heartbeat. There are several treatments available for hyperthyroidism. Thyroid hormones are hormones that regulate your body's metabolism, or how it converts the food you eat into energy. T3 and thyroxine are produced by the thyroid gland (T4). These hormones regulate your weight, energy levels, internal temperature, skin, hair, nail growth, metabolism, and are an important part of your endocrine system. Thyroid hormone affects nearly every organ system in the body, including the heart, central nervous system, autonomic nervous system, bone, gastrointestinal tract, and metabolism.

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A new mother who is on her fourth day of breastfeeding complains of very sore breasts. the nurse practitioner would:______.

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The answer to the question is Educate the mother that this is normal during the first week or two of breastfeeding and the soreness will eventually go away.

What is breastfeeding?

When you nurse your baby, typically directly from your breast, you are breastfeeding. Another name for it is nursing.

Depending on whether your baby prefers short, frequent feedings or longer ones, you should breastfeed him or her as frequently as possible. During your baby's development, this will alter. Babies frequently demand feedings every two to three hours. By two months, feeding every three to four hours is common, and by six months, most infants are fed every four to five hours.

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The nurse is teaching a four-point alternating gait to a patient. if the patient has understood the teaching completely, which pattern would be present in the patient?

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The pattern the nurse would be present to the patient is the client will advance both the left crutch and right foot at the same time.

Four-point alternating gait

Four-point gait a gait in forward motion using crutches: first one crutch is advanced, then the opposite leg, then the second crutch, then the second leg, and so on.

Thus, the pattern the nurse would be present to the patient is the client will advance both the left crutch and right foot at the same time.

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Which information is most important for the nurse to include when teaching a patient and the family about the administration of warfarin?

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The most important information that the nurse should include when teaching a patient and the family about the administration of warfarin is about International normalized ratio (INR) results should be between 2 to 3.

What is warfarin?

This drug is used to treat blood clots and/or stop the formation of new clots in the body. Keeping hazardous blood clots at bay lowers the chance of suffering a heart attack or stroke. A specific kind of abnormal heart rhythm, heart valve replacement, a recent heart attack, and specific operations all raise your risk of getting blood clots. Although warfarin is frequently referred to as a "blood thinner," the more accurate term is "anticoagulant." By lowering the concentration of specific molecules in your blood, it aids in maintaining blood flow in your body.

The laboratory test most usually used nowadays to report PT results is the international normalized ratio (INR); a value of 2 to 3 is appropriate. The laboratory tests activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are used to monitor heparin therapy and are used to detect deficits of certain clotting factors. GI bleeding is indicated by tarry stools. The antidote for warfarin, vitamin K, is found in green leafy vegetables (Coumadin).

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A nurse is reviewing legal issues in healthcare with a group of newly licensed nurses which of the:______

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A nurse is reviewing legal issues in healthcare with a group of newly licensed nurses and the recommendations that a nurse should take is place copies of incident report in clients medical record.

Main legal issue in nursing is that the nurse ought to keep the belongings of the patient in her custody. Take consent of relative or patient for any quite procedure or treatment. Avoid respondent enquirers to insurance agent.

Newly licensed nurses could face many challenges when transitioning to the workforce like increasing range of patients with complicated conditions and multiple comorbidities, lack of access to intimate mentors and coaches, etc.

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The first step in the diagnostic process is? a physical exam. taking medical tests. a medical history. a second opinion.

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The first step in the diagnostic process is taking a medical history.

What is medical history?

The medical history, case history, or anamnesis of a patient is information a doctor learns by asking specific questions, either to the patient or to other people who know the patient and can provide pertinent information, with the aim of learning information helpful in formulating a diagnosis and providing medical care to the patient. In contrast to clinical signs, which are determined by direct inspection on the part of medical personnel, medically relevant concerns recorded by the patient or others familiar with the patient are referred to as symptoms. A form of history will often be taken throughout most medical encounters. The breadth and focus of medical histories differ.

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The nurse is administering digoxin to a patient who has myocarditis. For which adverse effect will the nurse monitor the patient?

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Heart rate of 70 beats/min, use of one pillow to sleep, bilateral clear breath sounds are the adverse effects the nurse will monitor the patient.

What is myocarditis?

Myocarditis occurs when heart muscle becomes inflamed. When our heart muscle is inflamed, it can affect our heart's electrical system. This can cause the arrhythmia, or a rapid or abnormal heartbeat. Myocarditis can cause heart muscle to weaken and can lead to cardiomyopathy.

Digoxin increases the myocardial contractility and slows heart rate, increasing cardiac output. It is the effective therapy for a patient with heart failure and a heart rate of 70 beats/min. This rate allows heart to fill and empty more effectively because the faster the heart beats, the less it is able to fill; the improved filling improves the cardiac output. The patient should also have clear lungs, showing that heart is effectively moving blood from lungs through the heart to the system without backing up into the lungs. This is the same reason that patient can use a single pillow to sleep; orthopnea caused by the pulmonary edema that requires the patient to sleep with two or more pillows is a characteristic of heart failure. A prolonged PR interval on electrocardiogram demonstrates the negative dromotropic effect of digoxin; however, a prolonged PR interval reflects the first-degree atrioventricular block, an adverse effect of digoxin. Peripheral edema indicates the hypervolemia, which is characteristic of heart failure. Normal serum potassium is an indicator neither of the heart failure nor of effective digoxin therapy.

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Descriptive epidemiology describes the determinants of a health problem.
a. true
b. false

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Option B) False

Descriptive epidemiology does not describe the determinants of a health problem.

Descriptive epidemiology entails the distribution, and pattern, of a disease in a population by describing details of the distribution, pattern, and parameters involved.

What is descriptive epidemiology?

Descriptive epidemiology is defined as epidemiological studies that include activities that either fall within the descriptive region of the descriptive-analytic spectrum or have descriptive components that are much stronger than their analytical components.

In simple terms, descriptive epidemiology describes the outbreak in terms of a person, place, and time.

Descriptive epidemiology can also generate hypotheses of any etiologic research. Ecologic and cross-sectional studies are the most commonly applied descriptive epidemiology studies.

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The nurse is ambulating a client wearing a gait belt in the hallway one day after surgery. the client reports complaints of feeling dizzy what is the nurse's best action?

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The nurse is ambulating a client wearing a gait belt in the hallway one day after surgery. When  client reports complaints of feeling dizzy  the nurse's best action should be slowly lower the patient to the floor.

A gait belt: what is it? 

A gait belt is an aid that can be used to assist with sitting and standing as well as walking around. It can also be used to help safely transition a person from a bed to a wheelchair. It is fastened around the waist so that a caregiver can grab the belt and help raise or move the patient. When worn appropriately, the belt prevents both the care recipient from falling and the caregiver's back from getting hurt while lifting or moving the care recipient.

If the care recipient can bear some weight and is only partially dependent, a gait belt should be worn. One advantage of using a gait is that it helps the caregiver move the patient from one location to another. Additionally, gait belts can be utilized to lift a care receiver without putting undue strain on the back. A gait belt can be used to lift or move a person from one location to another.

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The nurse is developing teen health intiatives for the community. which intervention would be consisten wiht the intiatives of healthy people?

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The correct option is A - "Reduce the obesity rate among adolescents".

What is obesity  ?

Obesity is a medical condition, occasionally referred to as a disease, in which excessive or excess body fat has built up to the point where it may be harmful to one's health. When a person's body mass index (BMI), which is calculated by dividing their weight by their height squared (despite known allometric flaws), exceeds 30 kg/m2, they are considered obese; a BMI in the range of 25–30 kg/m2 is considered overweight. Lower numbers are used in several East Asian nations when calculating obesity.

Interventions to reduce obesity rate:

Eat more "healthy" fat and less "bad" fat.

Reduce your intake of processed and sugary foods.

Increase your intake of fruits and vegetables.

Consume a lot of dietary fiber.

Eat foods with a low GI as your primary focus.

Include your family on your trip.

Exercise aerobically frequently.

Question:

The nurse is developing teen health initiatives for the community. Which intervention would be consistent with the initiatives of Healthy People 2020?

A. Reduce the obesity rate among adolescents

B. Increase adolescent communication with a trusted adult

C. Encourage all adolescents to have a wellness checkup every 18 months

D. Increase the proportion of adolescents who receive reproductive health instruction before age 14.

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What force has historically been a consistent barrier to the development and practice of professional nurses?

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Nurses' involvement in biological ethics. In the three categories of biomedical ethics—

those that affect whole patient populations or particular patients; those that have an impact on policy or society at large;  those that arise inside organizations—nurses routinely encounter moral challenges.

Every day, ethical conundrums in the biomedical sector are dealt with by advanced practice nurses, clinical nurses, legislators, educators, consultants, administrators, and ethicists.

What is biomedical ethics?

Bioethics is the study of ethical, social, and legal issues that arise in biomedicine and biomedical research. Bioethicists do study on the moral, societal, and legal issues that occur in biomedicine and biomedical research.

They also participate in the development of institutional policies, conduct seminars and teach courses, serve on ethics committees, and give consultation and advice on moral issues.

Bioethicists are employed by academic institutions, hospitals, medical facilities, governmental agencies, commercial enterprises, and foundations. Bioethicists often need graduate degrees in bioethics or a related discipline, such philosophy, law, medicine, nursing, public health, psychology, political science, biology, or religion.

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Passive occupant protection devices require (_what_) action on the part of the occupant?

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Answer:

NO ACTION

Explanation:

Which food items would the nurse recognize as typical food allergens for a child?

Answers

Eggs, fish, and peanuts.

When checking the lower extremity of a conscious patient for sensation the ems provider should:_____

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EMS personnel should touch the patient's feet and legs and inquire as to whether the patient can feel the touch.

What is  lower extremeioty?

The area of the body from the hip to the toes is referred to as the lower extremities. The bones of the thigh, leg, and foot are all part of the lower extremity, as are the hip, knee, and ankle joints. The lower extremity is frequently referred to as the leg.

Who is a EMS provider ?

Pre-hospital emergency medical care is provided by emergency medical services (EMS) personnel. There is an inherent danger of illnesses and injuries at work due to their responsibilities. According to research, EMS personnel suffer from high rates of both fatal and nonfatal injuries and illnesses.

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What comfort measures would the nurse include in the plan of care for the client who is actively dying?

Answers

The comfort measures include:

Stopping medicines that do not aid comfortStopping needle sticks and blood drawsStopping lab work, therapies, diagnostic studiesProviding medications that can relieve pain, discomfort and nauseaProviding emotional and spiritual supportRelaxation and breathing techniques to ease anxiety

What is comfort care?

A patient care plan that prioritizes symptom management, pain management, and quality of life is referred to as comfort care. Patients who have been hospitalized multiple times often receive it because additional medical care is unlikely to make a difference. Palliative care and hospice are examples of comfort care.

Comfort care is regarded by the National Institute on Aging as "an vital component of medical care near the end of life." The institution states that persons who are terminally sick or in need of urgent medical attention require assistance with four different types of demands: bodily comfort, mental and emotional requirements, spiritual needs, and physical tasks.

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A client's primary care provider has recommended biofeedback in an effort to address chronic stress and reduce the potential for complications. what will be the goal of this intervention?

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A client's primary care provider has recommended biofeedback in an effort to address chronic stress and reduce the potential for complications and the goal of this intervention is teaching the client to consciously control her own body functioning.

Chronic stress, or a continuing stress for long time, will contribute to problems for heart and blood vessels. The consistent and increase in heart beat and therefore the elevated levels of stress hormones and of blood pressure, will take a toll on the body.

Biofeedback is a technique you'll be able to use to be told to regulate some of your body's functions, like your pulse.

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One of the provisions of hipaa title i designed to improve portability and continuity of health care coverage is:________

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When employees change employment or lose their jobs, Title I of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) safeguards their family members' access to health insurance.

What are the three primary goals of Hipaa? Which three categories of covered entities are listed in the quizlet for the HIPAA privacy rule?

To increase the mobility of health insurance, protect the privacy of patients and health plan members, increase the efficiency of the healthcare sector, guarantee the security of health information, and notify patients of data breaches.

"Covered entities" include health insurance plans, healthcare clearinghouses, and healthcare suppliers. The Privacy Rule explains how to use a person's protected health information and gives people their privacy rights and control over how their information is used.

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How far away should you be from the steering wheel?
A) 10 to 12 centimeters.
B) 20 to 22 inches.
C) You should be as close as possible.
D) 10 to 12 inches.

Answers

Answer:

D) 10 to 12 inches

Explanation:

For optimal safety, 10 to 12 inches is a good height and also prevents drivers from having catastrophic injuries or death on impact from being to close.

A client with a history of chronic alcoholism is admitted to the mental health unit. what does the nurse identify as the cause of a client's use of confabulation?

Answers

A client with a history of chronic alcoholism is admitted to the mental health unit so the nurse should identify marked loss of memory as the cause of a client's use of confabulation.

Chronic alcoholism ensures the typically speedy, excessive consumption of excessive alcoholic beverages that's characterized by depression of central system functioning resulting in slurred speech, muscle  in-coordination, and sleepiness or loss of consciousness.

Confabulation refers to the assembly or creation of false or incorrect recollections while not the intent to deceive, generally referred to as "honest lying". As an alternative, confabulation could be a falsification of memory by an individual who, believes he or she is genuinely communicating truthful memories.

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Using _____ can help people deal with stressful events such as surgery and noxious medical procedures and promote good health habits.

Answers

Using control-enhancing interventions can help people cater to stressful events such as surgery and noxious medical procedures and promote good health habits.

What are control-enhancing interventions?

Control enhancing interventions were developed to extend the level of perceived control and well-being of program participants. Program participants experienced significant increases in their perceived level of control and overall functioning whereas control group participants didn't. These results suggested that some declines formerly attributed to biological aging could also be prevented or reversed. Conceptual and methodological issues are discussed also as implications for the future.

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A major difference between bobby (type 1 diabetes) and his father (type 2 diabetes) is:_____.

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A major difference between bobby (type 1 diabetes) and his father (type 2 diabetes) is "how the condition is treated between type 1 and type 2".

What is type 1 diabetes?

Diabetes type 1, also referred to as juvenile diabetes or insulin-dependent diabetes, is a chronic illness. Little to no insulin is produced by the pancreas in this situation. The hormone insulin is used by the body to let glucose (sugar) into cells where it can be used to make energy.

Type 1 diabetes may be brought on by numerous elements, including viruses and genetics. Despite typically developing in childhood or adolescence, type 1 diabetes can sometimes strike adults.

What is type 2 diabetes?

A disorder in the body's ability to control and utilize sugar (glucose) as fuel is type 2 diabetes. This chronic (long-term) disorder causes the bloodstream to circulate with an excessive amount of sugar.

There are basically two interconnected issues at play in type 2 diabetes. The hormone that controls the flow of sugar into your cells, insulin, is not produced by your pancreas in sufficient amounts, which causes your cells to react poorly to insulin and absorb less sugar.

Although type 1 and type 2 diabetes can start in childhood and adulthood, respectively, type 2 diabetes used to be classified as adult-onset diabetes. Although type 2 is more prevalent in elderly adults, type 2 instances have increased in younger people as a result of the rise in childhood obesity.

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Which external pacemaker involves a pacer wire that is surgically placed in the atria or the ventricle and fed out through the skin?

Answers

The external pacemaker which involves a pacer wire that is surgically placed in the atria or the ventricle and fed out through the skin is Transthoracic pacemaker (TTP).

What is Ventricle?

One of the two large chambers at the bottom of the heart that collect and release blood to the lungs and other peripheral areas of the body is called a ventricle. The blood pushed by a ventricle is supplied by an atrium, a neighboring chamber in the upper heart that is smaller than a ventricle. Structures between the ventricles are referred to as interventricular, such as the interventricular septum, whereas structures within a single ventricle are referred to as intraventricular (for example an intraventricular block).

In a transthoracic pacemaker (TTP), a pacer wire is surgically inserted in the atria or the ventricle and fed out through the skin .

An electrode is percutaneously inserted into the ventricular cavity using a needle trocar introducer in the historical method of transthoracic cardiac pacing. Transthoracic cardiac pacing has a limited body of research, and its advantages and drawbacks are little understood.

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Pretend you're talking to yourself. What will you tell to the person in the mirror on how to overcome her weaknesses ​

Answers

Answer: You are bold, you know you make it In life by trusting, you have a guardian angel which is from God.

And you know God is in control.

Explanation:

The manager schedules a staff nurse to attend a motivational interviewing training session. which nurse behavior caused the manager to make this decision? select all that apply.

Answers

The manager schedules a staff nurse to attend a motivational interviewing training session and the nurse behavior which caused the manager to make this decision include interrupting the client, minimizing the client’s concerns and arguing with a client over agreed upon plans.

Training in motivational interviewing is a guide. Motivational interviewing (MI) is an evidence-based treatment which will facilitate people to resolve feeling regarding change. Specifically, it's a “collaborative, person-centered variety of guiding to elicit and strengthen motivation for change”

Benefits of motivational interviewing include: serving to clients to require responsibility for themselves and their actions, encouraging clients to examine a future freed from abuse or psychological state struggles and making ready clients to become additional receptive to treatment.

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A nurse is working with the parents of an infact born at 35 weeks gestation. which complciations would the infant be at high risk for in life?

Answers

A nurse is working with the parents of an infect born at 35 weeks' gestation. The complications would the infant be at high risk for in life is

A. Cerebral palsy

D. Developmental delay

E. Lack of sensory development

Overview of risk factors for infants delivered at 35 weeks

A preterm infant has a lower birth weight than a baby born at term. Many infants delivered at 35 weeks weigh less than 5 pounds, 8 ounces.

Prematurity is frequently accompanied by a number of symptoms, such as:

Hair on body (referred to as lanugo)

abnormal breathing patterns (babies may have irregular, shallow pauses in their breathing known as apnea)

reduced body fat

bigger (in female babies)

lower muscular activity and tone compared to full-term newborns

feeding issues because the baby may struggle to control their breathing and swallowing or sucking

Testicles that do not descend and a small, smooth, ridge less scrotum (in male babies)

soft and pliable ear cartilage Skin that is thin, glossy, and frequently seems translucent (veins may be visible under the skin)

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Help plss If m/ABF = 8w - 6 and m/ABE = 2(w + 11), find m/EBF.B Capital needed for company activities cannot be acquired through: ______ a) stocks and bonds b) current debt profits c) arbitrarily firing employees What should the nurse include when educating the parents of a toddler about safety hazards that can affect breathing? At a chemical synapse, the release of neurotransmitter occurs in response to a graded depolarization of the synaptic terminal. True or false?. a dialogue between aMother and Daughter for coming home late at night The value of information is directly linked to how it helps decision makers achieve their organizations _____. To sterilize the nutrient broth and nutrient agar, the tubes and bottles are __________. in a group of 60 people, 27 like cold drinks and 42 like hot drinks and each person likes at least one of the two drinks. how many like both coffee and tea? If the vertical initial speed of the ball is 4.5 m/s as the cannon moves horizontally at a speed of 0.70 m/s , how far from the launch point does the ball fall back into the cannon? Ed puzzle Intro to geography Which is the SOUTHERN most continentIMEDLy Which component of a nursing theory can be either abstract or concrete and is used to communicate meaning? 3. Rutherford's gold foil experiment showed several new things abOut the structure of the atom. Which results support the claim that the atomn has a dense, positively charged core? Choose the two statements that apply. A. Some positive particles deflected at sharp angles. B. Some negative particles defiected at sharp angles. C. Most of the positive particles passed straight through the foil. D. Some positive particles bounced back in the direction they came from. The _______ lobe contains cortical areas responsible for auditory and olfactory (smell) impulses. The nurse is preparing a blood transfusion for a client with renal failure. why does anemia often complicate renal failure? Which habitats should harbor snapping shrimp species with the greatest degree of genetic divergence from each other? I need help! Ignore the stuff on top and bottom If a negative externality results from the refining of oil, the cost of production as seen by the oil refinery:_____. please help me!! i have no clue Susie saved up her money and bought a model train. Rack of the 8 cars on the train were the same length. When Susie put all the trains together the train was 3 feet long. How long was each car? the ice cream shop has 10 flavor of ice cream, how many different two-scoop ice cream cones can you make?