necesito resolver: 5+2(2x)^-1/2

Answer:

800 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

140 + (0.30 x 800) = 400$, 800 miles

80 + (0.40 x 800) = 400$, 800 miles

(sorry for incorrect answer the first time, mixed up the cost and number of miles)

Answer: Trapezoid

Step-by-step explanation: A parallelogram is a shape that has two pairs of parallel sides, two pairs of equal opposite angles, two pairs of equal and parallel sides. Hope this helps!! :))

Answer:it's trapezoid i got a 100%

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 3 option correct

Hint :- The point slope form of the line is [tex] m(x-x_1) = y - y_1[/tex] , where [tex](x_1,x_2)[/tex] is the point and [tex] m [/tex] is the slope of the line .

Solution :- The given point is [tex](2,-1)[/tex] and the slope is 3 . On using the point slope form of the line, we have ;

[tex]\implies m(x-x_1)=y-y_1[/tex]

Substitute ,

[tex]\implies 3(x -2) = y -(-1) [/tex]

Simplify ,

[tex]\implies 3x -6=y+1 [/tex]

Add -1 and -y to the both sides ,

[tex]\implies \boxed{3x -y -7=0 }[/tex]

Answer:

You have to add -its easier to add up and down so you can see it more visibly-

Step-by-step explanation:

    1

 8.290

+6.673

 14.963

Hope this helps! Have a great day!!

Answer:

y=1

Step-by-step explanation:

You're correct also graphed so you can see your answer is right

The graph is undedefined because it doesn't have a X and continues straight on one point. So for standard for you would put Y=1/undefined or just undefined

Answer:

y=1/2x+14

Step-by-step explanation:

If you mark (-8,10) in a graph and go up 1, over 2, then you will eventually get to (0,14).

You can also use the slope formula in reverse. 1/2=b-10/0-(-8)

1/2=b-10/8, then multiply both side by 8

4=b-10, add 10 to both sides

14=b

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

I can't say for sure, but I am confident that is the right answer.

Answer:

16k + 36

Step-by-step explanation:

4(4k + 9)

(multiply everything in the bracket by 4 because that's whats surrounding the bracket)

4k * 4 + 9 * 4

16k + 36

Answer:

coefficient

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x=2

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's solve your equation step-by-step.

Step 1: Simplify both sides of the equation.

12=2x+4x

12=(2x+4x)(Combine Like Terms)

12=6x

12=6x

Step 2: Flip the equation.

6x=12

Step 3: Divide both sides by 6. 6x/6=12/6

x=2

Hope you found this helpful and have good day (.

Answer:

2

Step-by-step explanation:

plus the like-terms (x plus x): 2+4

so 12=6x. get 6 out of the x-term. X is the unknown number being multiplied by 6. To get it to the other side, divide the numbers. So: 12/6=x and 12/6 is 2. so x=2.

The simple interest of a given sum is directly proportional to the rate of interest. The total amount for repayment is $979.43.

The simple interest is a method of calculating the interest over a sum without considering the compounding.

The simple interest over a period of time varies as arithmetic progression.

Given that,

The amount of loan P = $561.60

Time for the interest T = 8 years.

Rate of interest R = 9.3%.

The total amount A can be given by summing the amount of loan to the interest over it as,

A = P + S.I

And the simple interest is given as,

S.I = (P × R × T) / 100

    = (561.60 × 9.3 × 8) / 100

    = 417.83.

The amount is given as,

A = 561.60 + 417.83

   = 979.43.

Hence, the total amount to be repaid is $979.43.

To know more about Simple interest click on,

https://brainly.com/question/25845758

#SPJ1

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Mr. Chan originally placed 4,000 in the bank as a fixed deposit for 2 years.

Each years the bank added a certain amount of interest.

At the end of the 2 years he gained 243 dollars and 60 cents just from interest.

How to solve:

Simply take away the 4 in the amount of money

Leaving: $243.60

( 2 years )

Now divide 243.60 by 1/2

which is 121.8

Mr.Chan got 121.8 worth of interest a year

$10.5 a month

$2.3 a week

6 cents a day

All in 2 years.

Answer:

multiply by 49.8 or add 10975 cm.

Answer:

that's hard

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The probability of turning over E would be 1/5

Step-by-step explanation:

since there are 5 cards and there is an equal chance you could get any one of them, the probability is one (the amount of cards drawn) over five (the amount of cards total.)

Hope this helps :)

Answer:

3 times - 2,times 8-13

You solve the ones in the bracket first

(the rule of BODMAS)

So 8-13 first, then

-2times 8-13,then

Then you get your answer

Answer:

The square roots of 144 are 12 and -12 which are rational numbers.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

25 hits

Step-by-step explanation:

you would divide 1000 by 40 and get 25

Answer:

winner : 16 million

runner up : 6 million

Step-by-step explanation:

half of 16 is 8, and 2 less is 6. 6 + 16 = 22

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\tt{} \frac{3}{4} (x - 6) = 2(x - 3) + 4[/tex]

[tex]\tt{} \frac{3}{4} x - \frac{9}{2} = 2x - 6 + 4[/tex]

[tex]\tt{} \frac{3}{4} x - \frac{9}{2} = 2x - 2[/tex]

[tex]\tt{}3x - 18 = 8x - 8[/tex]

[tex]\tt{}3x - 18 = - 8 + 18[/tex]

[tex]\tt{} - 5x = 10[/tex]

[tex]\tt{}x = - 2 \\ \\ [/tex]

Answer:

x=-8

Step-by-step explanation:

3/4( x -16) = 2 ( x- 3) +4

3/4x - 3/4*16 = 2x - 6 + 4

3/4 x -12 =2x -2

-2x = -2x

________________

-5x/4 -12 = -2

+2 = +2

_____________

-5x/4 = 10

x=- 10*4/5

x= -8

Answer:

angle 4 is the corresponding angle with angle 8

Step-by-step explanation:

Please mark as brainliest

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

* Knowing that they are vertical angles must mean that both angles are equal

45=3x

*divide both sides by 3

x=15

3(15)=45

Answer:

[tex]\frac{{5}}{w^{2}}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

We begin with [tex]\frac{15w^{4}v^{5}}{3w^{6}v^{5}}[/tex].

Firstly, as with simplifying fractions we can simplify the numbers. 15 is divisible by 3, so this becomes [tex]\frac{5w^{4}v^{5}}{w^{6}v^{5}}[/tex].

To simplify indices (aka exponents or powers), we must subtract the power on the denominator from the matching one on the numerator, and then use that number as the power in the numerator. In this case, 4-6 and 5-5, which becomes -2 and 0.

So now we have [tex]\frac{5w^{-2}v^{0}}{1}[/tex].

For a negative power, we switch it into the other half (numerator to denominator) and take away the negative sign, leaving [tex]\frac{5v^{0}}{1w^{2}}[/tex].

We can remove the [tex]v^{0}[/tex] in the numerator as it just multiplies the numerator by one, and remove the 1 in the denominator for the same reason.

This leaves us with [tex]\frac{5}{w^{2}}[/tex].

**This content involves division with indices, which you may wish to revise. Let me know if you have any questions. I'm always happy to help!

Answer: -48x+8x+16

You just multiply every term in the parentheses