The real-time two dimensional (2d) examination of the heart enables the assessment of Cardiac morphology, Pathology and Function.
What is morphology?In biology, morphology is the study of the shape and arrangement of parts of living organisms in order to determine their function, development and shape that may have been shaped by evolution. Morphology is particularly important in classifying species because it can indicate how closely related one species is to another. Morphology is also studied in other sciences, such as astronomy and geology. And in language, morphology studies where words come from and why they look the way they do. The concept of form as opposed to function in biology goes back to Aristotle However, the field of morphology was developed by Johann Wolfgang von Goethe (1790) and independently by the German anatomist and physiologist Karl Friedrich Burdach (1800).
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The nurse is caring for a client with acute primary respiratory acidosis. when determining the cause of the acidosis the nurse is aware that which imbalance is most common?
Answer:Impaired alveolar ventilation
Explanation:
What is the key to using a pocket mask properly, and how do you know if a breathe is given effectively?
The key to using a pocket mask properly and knowing if a breath is given effectively is by the rescuer using the victim's chin to guide the pocket mask to the correct position and then delivering each breath over 2 seconds.
To know the pocket mask has been properly fitted, the rescuer uses the victim's chin as the guide to correctly position the pocket mask. The rescuer should also ensure the mask is properly sealed on the victim's face. When giving breaths to a victim using a pocket mask, the rescuer would deliver each breath over 2 seconds. The rescuer should use just enough force to make the chest rise.
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What are the properties of an ideal drug? (select all that apply.)
a. ease of administration
b. predictability
c. irreversible action
d. a recognizable trade name
e. chemical stability
Answer:
The most important properties of an ideal drug are: effectiveness, safety, and selectivity. If the drug is not effective, it should not be used. There is no such drug as safe drug: all drugs can cause harm. There is no such thing as selective drug: all drugs can cause side effects.
A disease that begins slowly, progresses over a period of time, and may resist treatment is a(n)?
Answer:
Brainliest pls
Explanation:
Chronic disease
The __________ separates the common portion of the procedure description from the unique portion of the procedure description.
The Semicolon separates the common portion of the procedure description from the unique portion of the procedure description.
Semicolons (;) are punctuation marks that serve two major purposes: They divide items in a long list. The Council, for instance, has 10 members, including three from Sydney, Australia, four from Auckland, New Zealand, two from Suva, Fiji, and one from Honiara, the Solomon Islands.
To join similar independent clauses, use a semicolon. A sentence that conveys a complete idea and makes sense on its own is referred to as an independent clause.
Use a semicolon after a conjunctive adverb or a linking phrase.
To separate items in a list, use semicolons.
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Administration of a medication in the elderly can result in a much higher dosage than the clinician might intend because?
The elderly may require a considerably higher dosage of a medication than the doctor may have intended because of elderly have less water content in the body.
What is medication?A medication is a drug that is used to detect, treat, or prevent disease. It is also referred to as a medicament, medicine, pharmaceutical drug, or simply a drug. Drug therapy, often known as pharmacotherapy, is a crucial aspect of medicine. Pharmacotherapy depends on the science of pharmacology for continual progress and on pharmacy for efficient administration.
There are various categories in which drugs can be placed. One of the important divides is by level of control, which separates prescription pharmaceuticals (those that a pharmacist only gives on the advice of a doctor, physician assistant, or licensed nurse) from over-the-counter drugs (those that consumers can order for themselves).
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the hospitalized client is experiencing gastrointestinal bleeding with a platelets at 9,000/mm³. the client is receiving prednisone and azathioprine. what action will the nurse take?
Perform a neurologic assessment with vital signs.
A platelet count less than 10,000/mm3 may indicate spontaneous bleeding involving the cranial vault. To rule out this possibility, a nurse will do a neurological examination. Clients do not require contact protection despite being on immunosuppressants.Take contact precautions when interacting with clients known or suspected to have an infectious disease. increase. Diphenoxylate and atropine can cause constipation, making it difficult to accurately gauge the extent of a client's internal bleeding. Patients should not floss too vigorously. This can cause bleeding. Ecchymosis and petechiae can be caused by a low platelet count. A platelet count of less than 10,000/mm3 may result in greater bleeding.Therefore, the correct answer is neurologic assessment.
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Te nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 20 weeks' gestation and obtains a hemoglobin level. which result would be a cause for concern?
The result that can be a cause of concern for a pregnant client at 20 weeks' gestation having a hemoglobin level of: (4) 10.6 g/dL
Gestation is the period during which a women is pregnant and carries the child in her womb. Different species can have different time periods of gestation, For example, in humans it is for 9 months whereas for elephants it is for 2 years.
Hemoglobin levels for a pregnant women should be between 12-16 gm/dL. The minimum value can fall up to 11 gm/dL. A value below 11 is considered to be a cause of concern.
The question is incomplete, the complete question is:
The nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 20 weeks' gestation and obtains a hemoglobin level. which result would be a cause for concern?
12.8 g/dL11.9 g/dL11.2 g/dL10.6 g/dLTo know more about gestation, here
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During labor, a primigravid client receives an epidural anesthetic, and the nurse assists in monitoring maternal and fetal status. which finding suggests an adverse reaction to the anesthesia?
Maternal hypotension—A common physiological effect of epidural and spinal anesthesia is hypotension, primarily due to blockade and SNS, leading to arterial and venous vasodilation with subsequent 'functional' hypovolemia increase.
What is Anesthesia?Anesthesia is a controlled temporary loss of sensation or consciousness induced for medical purposes may include some or all of analgesia (reduction or prevention of pain), paralysis (relaxation of muscles), amnesia (loss of memory), and loss of consciousness. A person under the influence of an anesthetic is said to be anesthetized. Anesthesia can be used to painlessly perform procedures that cause severe or excruciating pain in the unanesthetized person or are otherwise technically infeasible.
Broadly speaking, he has three categories of anesthetics.
General anesthesia suppresses central nervous system activity and uses injections or inhalants to cause loss of consciousness and complete paralysis. Sedation suppresses the central nervous system to some extent, suppressing anxiety and long-term memory formation without loss of consciousness.Local and regional anesthesia that blocks the transmission of nerve impulses from certain parts of the body. Depending on the situation, it can be used alone (where the person remains fully conscious) or in combination with general anesthesia or sedation. Drugs can target peripheral nerves and paralyze isolated parts of the body. For example, numbing a tooth for dental work or using a nerve block to cut off sensation in an entire limb. Alternatively, epidural and spinal anesthesia can be applied to areas of the central nervous system itself to suppress incoming sensations from nerves that supply areas of obstruction.To learn more about Anesthesia , visit:
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How many years of a residency program are required for newly graduated m.d.s choosing to specialize in family practice, internal medicine, or pediatrics?
Newly graduated m.d.s choosing to specialize in internal medicine, family practice, or paediatrics require a three years residency program.
The length of your residency training is determined by the speciality you choose. The shortest residency programs are in primary care, while the longest is in surgery. Newly graduated m.d.s choosing to specialize in internal medicine, family practice, or paediatrics require a three years residency program.
Regardless of your residency program length, your sense of independence, responsibility, and autonomy grows with every year of residency until you are operating independently in your desired field by the close of your residency program. All residency areas of expertise also provide the option for additional specialization following residency, known as fellowship training.
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The nurse is reviewing the data of patients who have undergone surgery. which patient would be at the highest risk of orthostatic hypotension based on the given data?
3. Patient C: hip replacement
The risk of orthostatic hypotension increases with the amount of time a patient stays immobile. The person who had a hip replacement and had to stay in bed for 90 days would therefore be most at risk for orthostatic hypotension.
Orthostatic hypotension- When we rise up from a supine (lying down) position, we experience orthostatic hypotension, or a drop in blood pressure. Since the name "orthostasis" indicates standing up, it is defined as low blood pressure (hypotension) that occurs when a person stands up.
Some of the pathophysiological causes of OH include the dependent pooling of blood in organs and the periphery, poor venous return, stroke volume, and changes in cardiac and baroreceptor function.
The given question is incomplete, find below the complete question,
Q. The nurse is reviewing the data of patients who have undergone surgery. Which patient would be at the highest risk of orthostatic hypotension based on the given data?
1. Patient A: appendectomy
2. Patient B: lobotomy
3. Patient C: hip replacement
4. Patient D: bypass surgery
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Why is the use of fetal monitors considered a factor in the increase of cesarean sections performed in the united states?.
The Fetal monitors the heart rate and then monitoring that may help detect changes in the normal heart rate the pattern during the labor. If a certain changes are to be accured detected, the steps can be taken as to help treat the underlying problem. the Fetal heart rate monitoring also can help to prevent the treatments that are not needed
The Electronic fetal monitoring is the procedure in which the instruments are to be used to continuously record the heartbeat of the fetus and the contractions of the woman's of the uterus during labor. The method that is used to depends on the policy of your ob-gyn or the hospital, your risk of the problems, and how your labor is going.
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A critical evaluation and synthesis of research studies focusing on a specific topic that is useful for health-care providers is a(n) _________________.
A critical evaluation and synthesis of research studies focusing on a specific topic that is useful for healthcare providers is a(n) systematic review.
In the field of science, a systematic review can be described as a summary of various medical research studies which are carefully studied, analyzed, and interpreted in order to answer a concerned question. A systematic review involves critical evaluation and high-end analysis of multiple studies which are done in detail that are useful to healthcare providers.
Data is extracted from various related research in a systematic review to reach to a decision point about a concerning topic. Systematic reviews help in discussion related to medical topics, to provide data for criticizing a certain topic, and to evaluate the gaps between various studies. A systematic review can also build up a topic for future research.
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Patient education tools should be written at the 11th grade reading level.
a. true
b. false
Answer:
I think it would be A
Explanation:
Patients should understand that reading level.
A client is scheduled for a cholecystogram for later in the day. what is the nurse's understanding on the diagnostic use of this exam?
The nurse's understanding about the diagnostic use for the client scheduled for a cholecystogram should be: that it is used to visualize the gall bladder and bile duct.
Cholecystogram is a kind of X-ray test for the gall bladder. For this, the patient id prescribed iodine tablets for one or two night before the test is performed. The test is generally performed to check for the gall stones. Cancer can also be detected using the procedure.
Gall bladder is the organ of the digestive system. It is a small pear-shoed organ present at the upper portion of the abdomen. The function of gall bladder is to store and secrete the digestive juices produced by the liver.
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If you need to examine antibodies against a virus in a patient, which part of the blood will you need?.
If you need to examine antibodies against a virus in a patient, the plasma part of the blood is needed.
The immune system uses antibodies, often referred to as immunoglobulins, to recognize and destroy foreign substances including harmful bacteria and viruses. The antigen, or distinctive molecule of the infection, is recognized by the antibody.
Plasma contains proteins called antibodies. They are a component of your body's built-in defenses. They identify alien objects, like bacteria, and notify your immune system, which then eliminates them. Protein molecules called antigens can be detected on the outer layer of red blood cells.
When a person has been previously infected with or immunized against a virus that causes sickness, antibodies are found in their blood; these antibodies demonstrate the body's efforts (prior infection) or readiness (previous infection or vaccination) to fight off a particular virus.
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A nurse assesses a patient with a tentative diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder. which question would be most appropriate for the nurse to ask?
"Do you find it difficult to control your worrying?" Those who suffer from generalized anxiety disorder typically worry excessively. They are less likely to have a history of severe trauma, fear social situations, or participate in ritualistic behavior.
What is Anxiety?Anxiety is characterized by feelings of worry, dread, and unease. You may begin to perspire, become agitated and anxious, and experience a rapid heartbeat. It is a common reaction to stress. You may experience anxiety when confronted with a difficult challenge at work, before taking a test, or before making a critical decision. It might help you manage. If you are anxious, you may feel more energized or able to concentrate. However, for those suffering from anxiety disorders, the terror can be incapacitating and last for a long time. Anxiety disorders are conditions characterized by persistent anxiety that may worsen over time. The symptoms may interfere with daily tasks such as work performance, academic progress, and interpersonal relationships.To learn more about Anxiety, refer to the following link:
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Once certified, a tumor registrar pays an annual fee to the ncra and, therefore, does not have to participate in continuing education. True or false
Once certified, a tumour registrar pays an annual fee to the ncra and, therefore, does not have to participate in continuing education. This statement is False.
A mass of tissue that develops abnormally when cells do not die on schedule or expand and divide more often than they should. Cancer-free tumours might be benign or malignant (cancer). Although benign tumours can become enormous, they do not penetrate or spread to surrounding tissues or to other areas of the body.
When aberrant cells congregate, a solid mass of tissue called a tumour is created. Bones, skin, tissue, organs, and glands can all be impacted by tumours. Many tumours are benign and do not represent cancer.
Tumours often develop when cells in the body divide and expand excessively. The body normally regulates the growth and division of cells. Older cells are replaced by new ones, or new functions are carried out by new cells. Damaged or unnecessary cells expire to create room for healthy ones.
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Which field of study in kinesiology is concerned with injury prevention and treatment? group of answer choices
Athletic training field of study in kinesiology is concerned with injury prevention and treatment.
Kinesiology- The academic study of how the human body moves is known as kinesiology (from the Greek words for "movement" and "study of"). Kinesiology studies the physiological, anatomical, pathological, and biomechanical aspects of movement.
During a kinesiology session, when the practitioner analyzes the body to look for hidden stresses, muscle testing is frequently used. The next step is to remain dressed and get on the table like would for a massage.
In class, students learn how to help patients' physical mobility be enhanced or corrected by combining a holistic approach with ideas from anatomy, biomechanics, and psychology.
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Red blood cells are a type of specialized cell that move _______ and carbon dioxide throughout the body.
Answer:
oxygen
Explanation:
Answer:oxygen
Explanation:
Which medications does the nurse expect to be prescribed for a preschooler with newly diagnosed cystic fibrosis?
The nurse expect to be prescribed for a preschooler with newly diagnosed cystic fibrosis are-
- fat soluble vitamins
- antibiotics
- pancreatic enzymes
Cystic Fibrosis- Our digestive system, lungs, and other organs might get damaged by the illness known as cystic fibrosis. It's a hereditary condition brought on by a damaged gene that can be handed down through the generations. The cells that make mucus, perspiration, and digestive fluids are impacted by cystic fibrosis.
Antibiotics- Medicines known as antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections in both humans and animals. They function by eradicating the germs or by making it difficult for the bacteria to proliferate and flourish.
The given question is incomplete, find below the complete question,
Q. Which medications does the nurse expect to be prescribed for a preschooler with newly diagnosed cystic fibrosis? Select all that apply.
- antihistamines
- steroids
- fat soluble vitamins
- antibiotics
- pancreatic enzymes
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When monitoring the efficacy of allopurinol therapy, the nurse should prioritize the results of what diagnostic test?
When monitoring the efficacy of allopurinol therapy, the nurse should prioritise the results of serum uric acid levels diagnostic test.
What is allopurinol?Gout is treated and prevented over the long run using allopurinol. When used frequently, it can stop gout attacks and lessen the risk of joint damage.
People with high blood urate concentrations develop gout. The body naturally manufactures urate on a daily basis. This typically dissolves in your blood before leaving the body, primarily through your urine. Urate crystals, however, can develop in and around your joints if excessive amounts of urate are created or if your body is unable to adequately eliminate it. Without your knowledge, these crystals may steadily form for years. Once a large number of crystals have grown, they may shed into the joint, resulting in uncomfortable inflammation.
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Choosing a number of different foods within any given food group rather than eating the same thing day after day describes a component of a healthful diet known as ______.
One aspect of a healthy diet known as variety refers to choosing a variety of meals within any particular food group rather than eating the same item every day.
What is a diet?A person's or another organism's diet is the total amount of food they consume. The utilization of a particular nutritional intake for health or weight management is frequently implied by the phrase diet (with the two often being related). Humans are omnivores, yet each culture and individual has certain food preferences or food taboos. This could be for gastronomic or moral grounds. The nutritional value of each person's diet may vary.
Consumption and absorption of vitamins, minerals, essential amino acids from protein and essential fatty acids from foods containing fat are necessary for complete nutrition. Food energy in the form of carbohydrate, protein, and fat are also necessary. Dietary practices and decisions have a big impact on longevity, health, and overall quality of life.
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When dining away from home, what is the best and easiest way to determine appropriate portion size?
The best and simplest way to choose the right portion size when dining out is to compare food portion sizes to your hands.
What is dinner?Typically, the term "dinner" refers to what is considered to be the largest and most formal meal of the day in many Western countries. In the past, the main meal—called dinner—was traditionally served about noon. It increasingly shifted to later in the day between the 16th and the 19th centuries, especially among the aristocracy. Depending on the culture, the term can refer to any meal, regardless of quantity or time of day. On exceptional occasions, like Christmas supper, it is still frequently utilized for a midday or early afternoon meal. In warmer climes, it's more common for people to have their main meal in the evening, once the temperature has dropped.
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The nurse provides self-care instructions to a client who is receiving external radiation therapy for bone metastases. which client activity demonstrates a need for further teaching?
The following client activity who has received radiation therapy demonstrates a need for further teaching:
Apply pressure on the radiated area to prevent bleeding.Avoid standing within six feet of persons under the age of 18.what is radiation therapy?Radiation therapy, often known as radiotherapy or RT, is a treatment that uses ionizing radiation to control or destroy cancerous cells. It is typically administered as part of cancer treatment and is sometimes abbreviated as RT, RTx, or XRT.If a cancer is restricted to a single part of the body, radiation treatment may be curative.It can also be used as adjuvant treatment to stop tumor recurrence following primary malignant tumor removal surgery (for example, early stages of breast cancer).In tumors that are sensitive to chemotherapy, radiation treatment has been utilized before, during, and after the chemotherapy.Radiation oncology refers to the branch of oncology that deals with irradiation.To learn more about radiation therapy, refer to the following link:
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What precaution should be taken when adult aed pads are used on cardiac arrest victims under 8 years old?
The precaution should be taken when adult AED pads are used on cardiac arrest victims under 8 years old is ascertain that the AED pads are not arranged such that they contact.
Cardiac Arrest- Cardiac arrests are when a diseased heart's electrical circuitry malfunctions most frequently. This abnormality results in an abnormal heart rhythm, such as ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. A serious impairment of the heart's circulation is another factor that contributes to certain cardiac arrests (bradycardia).
Bradycardia- Bradycardia is a condition when the heart beats less often than 60 times per minute. The heart cannot pump enough oxygen-rich blood to the body at this rate during routine activity or exercise.
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Why is an increased target-receptor distance required in the paralleling technique?
To prevent image magnification increased target-receptor distance required in the paralleling technique.
Magnification- A microscope's capacity to generate a picture of an item at a scale that is bigger (or even smaller) than its real size is known as magnification.
Target- A drug target is a biological molecule, often a protein, that is inherently linked to a certain disease process and that a medication might target to have the intended therapeutic effect.
Paralleling technique- The parallel method is the alignment of the central axis of the X-ray source so that it is perpendicular to both the plane of the film and the object being investigated. Unfortunately, it is considerably simpler to align the X-ray central axis perpendicular to the film than to the object.
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In a fowler or semi-fowler position, it is normal and not a cause for concern if the patient:______.
Answer:is in a semi-sitting position
Explanation:is in a semi-sitting position Take special care when carrying a patient in a Fowler or semi-Fowler position in case the patient vomits. Also monitor that the patient does not become unresponsive or develop airway problems. The Fowler or semi-Fowler position is a semi-sitting position, so that is normal and expected.
A client is taking antipsychotic medication and asks the nurse what dopamine is. what is a correct response by the nurse?
When a client asks the nurse about what dopamine is the nurse can respond by saying that dopamine is a neurotransmitter.
Dopamine is a type of neurotransmitter that is released in our body whenever there is a sense of pleasure. When we do any activity that gives us mental happiness it is due to the release of chemical dopamine. It is basically synthesized in the brain and can be artificially induced by the use of certain drugs.
It is also known as a happy hormone and can be absent when we are going through phases of depression or stress in our lives. Exercising regularly, eating healthy, doing some yoga, decreasing stress can also help trigger the release of dopamine.
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A client with cholelithiasis has a gallstone lodged in the common bile duct. when assessing this client, the nurse expects to note:______.
A client with cholelithiasis has a gallstone lodged in the common bile duct. when assessing this client, the nurse expects to note option(d) i.e, yellow sclerae.
The presence of one or more calculi (gallstones) in the gallbladder is referred to as cholelithiasis. Gallstones affect 20% of adults and 10% of those over 65 in affluent nations. Gallstones typically have no symptoms. Biliary colic is the most typical symptom; gallstones do not result in dyspepsia or fatty food intolerance. Early symptoms of jaundice, which develop when the common bile duct is blocked, include yellow sclerae. Normal urine is pale amber in color. Circumferential pallor and dark, tarry stools are symptoms of hypoxia and gastrointestinal bleeding, not ordinary bile duct obstruction.
Bile that has been stored in the gallbladder solidifies into a substance like a stone to create gallstones. Gallstones can be brought on by an excess of cholesterol, bile salts, or bilirubin (a bile pigment). Cholelithiasis is the medical term for the presence of gallstones within the gallbladder itself.
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The complete question is:
A client with cholelithiasis has a gallstone lodged in the common bile duct. When assessing this client, the nurse expects to note:
A. light amber urine.
B. black, tarry stools.
C. circumoral pallor.
D. yellow sclerae.
