Suppose separate gene knockouts do not produce any phenotypic effects but combining the two gene knockouts in one organism shows a difference in phenotype. what is the most likely explanation?

Answers

Answer 1

The most likely explanation for this circumstance is Gene redundancy.

What is Gene knockout?

Gene knockout may be defined as a type of genetic technique through which a specific gene from living organisms is eliminated or removed. Apart from this, the function of a specific gene is also terminated with this technique.

Gene redundancy may be characterized as an instance through which two or more genes perform an identical function and the inactivation of either one of them has little or no effect on the biological phenotype or pathway.

Therefore, gene redundancy is the most likely explanation for the given circumstance.

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Related Questions

The __________ nervous system is comprised of the brain and spinal cord. a. somatic b. peripheral c. sympathetic d. central please select the best answer from the choices provided a b c d

Answers

Answer:

d. central nervous system

Answer:

d. central

Explanation:


5 All of the following are examples of solutions expeept?
A Chocolate Milk
B Trail Mix
C Fruit Juice
D Vonilla ice cream.

Answers

Answer:

D

Explanation:

The term solution is an idea given whereby a solute ( dissolving substance) dissolves in a solvent( dissolving medium eg water)

solute + solvent = solution

The correct answer is D. Vonilla ice cream

Which organelles produce lysosomes?

Answers

Answer:

Golgi apparatus

Explanation:

Lysosome enzymes are made by proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum and enclosed within vesicles by the Golgi apparatus. Lysosomes are formed by budding from the Golgi complex.

Research has found that obesity is related to high blood pressure. this finding means that:_____.

Answers

Research has found that obesity is related to high blood pressure. This finding means Obesity is a risk factor for high blood pressure.

Obesity-related hypertension is one of the important public health issue. As the obesity increases, the hypertension with its associated cardiovascular risk will increase. Obesity is an risk factor for the development of cardiovascular diseases such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, coronary heart disease and heart failure, also the possible existence of a metabolically healthy obese phenotype (which could be more appropriately be referred as a lower-risk form of obesity), the important role of regional body fat distribution and ectopic fat accumulation and presence of an obesity and/or BMI paradox in patients with coronary heart disease are all observations that emphasize the remarkable heterogeneity of obesity well.

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Which molecule demonstrates the widest range of functions due to its ability to adopt multiple conformations? dna rna both molecules carry out a wide range of activities within the cell.

Answers

The correct option is (b) RNA

RNA molecule demonstrates the widest range of functions due to its ability to adopt multiple conformations.

What allows RNA to fold?The ability of RNA to fold into many three-dimensional conformations allows it to fulfill a range of activities within the cell, including manufacturing proteins, controlling gene expression, and serving as a source of information for certain viruses. The majority of protein and RNA molecules, or at least their constituent sections or domains, spontaneously fold into intricate three-dimensional forms. Numerous RNAs have been shown to fold in vitro with unique contributions from folding kinetics and thermodynamic stability. The hairpin ribozyme, a tiny RNA that catalyzes an in vitro cleavage and ligation reaction that has been thoroughly studied, is one of these RNAs.

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Jalil drives from Philadelphia to Pittsburgh. What would be the most appropriate SI unit to use to measure the distance he traveled?

Group of answer choices

Millimeter

Kelvin

Kilogram

Kilometer

Answers

The most appropriate unit to measure the distance traveled is Kilometer.

The kilometer is a unit of measurement of length that derives from the meter and belongs to the International System of Units. The word "kilometer" results from the combination of the prefix kilo with the word meter, which is why one kilometer is equivalent to one thousand meters.

Kilometer

How is km measured?

A kilometer is a unit of length or measurement used officially to express distances between geographic locations on land in most parts of the world.  1 km = 1000 m.

How to calculate distance in physics?

V = v0 + a .

The distance will be the result of the velocity multiplied by the time plus the acceleration multiplied by the time squared divided by two.

With this information, we can conclude that kilometer is a Unit of measurement of length that corresponds to one thousand meters.

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How do you think the reactivity of aluminium compares to the reactivity of other metals?​

Answers

In a complex, a more reactive metal will replace a less reactive metal. Aluminum replaces iron in iron(III) oxide because it is more reactive than iron. Iron is decreased when aluminum eliminates oxygen from iron(III) oxide.

Despite being such a reactive metal, aluminum does not react well with airborne oxygen. Because it has previously reacted, the aluminum oxide has developed into a thin, strongly bound layer that shields the aluminum foil from additional attacks, which is why it does not react.

The metal aluminum is quite reactive. It easily generates a layer of aluminum oxide on its surface when oxygen from the air reacts with it. This coating of aluminum oxide is exceedingly thick and prevents air from entering the metal to cause further reactions.

Aluminum is a reactive metal that is challenging to separate from aluminum oxide, its source (Al2O3). The fact that aluminum oxidizes quickly and that its oxide is an exceptionally stable molecule that, unlike rust on iron, does not flake off makes aluminum one of the hardest metals on Earth to purify.

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An action potential involves na moving ________ the cell and k moving ________ the cell.

Answers

Inside, Outside

An action potential involves Na moving inside the cell and k moving outside the cell.

Na+ moves inside the cell during an action potential, and k+ moves outside the cell.Outside of the cells, natrium content is greater. The ion canals will open when an action potential occurs, allowing sodium or natrium to enter the cells. As a result, the potential will depolarize quickly and turn more positive. After some time, the potassium/kalium ion will leave the cell and repolarize the membrane potential, making it more negative once more.

What is action potential? A abrupt, quick, transient, and propagating shift in the resting membrane potential is referred to as an action potential. The only cells that can produce action potentials are neurons and muscle cells; this quality is known as excitability.

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In the event of a bee sting or similar unexpected occurrences, what are the safest, most appropriate steps to take?

Answers

Treatment for bee sting reactions:

The treatment for bee sting reaction will depend upon the severity of the allergic reaction:

Treating a mild to moderate reaction

Treating a severe reaction

Long-term treatment

Taking care of a mild to moderate reaction

Remove the stinger as quickly as you can after been stung by a bee, being careful not to squeeze the venom sac. To do this, one might want to utilize a set of tweezers. The amount of venom delivered into the bloodstream will be reduced by removing the stinger.To assist lessen itching and irritation, use a cold compress, apply steroid ointments, and take antihistamines.Within a few days, the symptoms ought to go away.

-Treating a severe reaction

An immediate injection of epinephrine, which will assist to lessen the severity of the allergic reaction, is required for severe, systemic reactions. Additionally, oxygen and intravenous fluids may be given by doctors.A person should use an EpiPen (an injectable tool for epinephrine) right away if they have one. A severe allergic reaction's symptoms are momentarily reversed with epinephrine. An EpiPen should always be carried by someone with a serious allergy.Even if they have self-administered epinephrine, anyone exhibiting one or more anaphylactic symptoms should visit an emergency department as soon as they can.The patient should lay on their back with their feet elevated while they wait for the emergency services to arrive.

Long-term treatment

Immunotherapy for desensitization is a therapy used to lessen a patient's sensitivity to specific allergens. Someone who has had a severe allergic reaction to bee stings, or has other risk factors, can undergo a variant of this treatment known as venom immunotherapy (VIT) (VIT).VIT entails a series of injections of progressively more potent bee venom. The immune system can get tolerant to the venom by gradually increasing the dose over the course of around three years.

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If nucleotides from the dna of a human were quantified and 30 percent of them contained the base adenine, what percentage of them would contain the base guanine?.

Answers

If 30% of the DNA is Adenine, then 20% will be guanine.

What is chargaff's rule?

The molar ratios [A] = [T] and [C] = [G] were present in all species, and the ratio [C + G] / [A + T] was often lower than unity since [C + G] is a less common element. And Chargaff's rule name is given to these ratios.

Additionally, the molar similarities of A with T and C with G naturally support a certain type of combination link. Furthermore, Chargaff himself is unwilling to take a chance on claims of his experimental observation in the absence of new experimental ideas.

Additionally, he believed that Watson and Crick's model-building strategy was not grounded in science. Most notably, he later disparaged molecular biology in general and eventually grew frustrated at what he perceived as a refusal to acknowledge the significance of his work.

Therefore, in this case, 30% is Adenine and 30% will be Thymine, so the remaining 40% will be GC, out of which 20% will be Guanine.

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When biological molecules engage in condensation, such reactions are _________ reactions.

Answers

synthesis

When biological molecules engage in condensation, such reactions are synthesis reactions.

A huge number of monomers coming together to form a large macromolecule is what is known as a polymerization reaction. During the process, a tiny molecule like water is liberated.The new molecule is created by joining the single monomer unit. Due to the fact that a new molecule is created during this reaction, it is also known as the synthesis reaction. The synthesis reaction also results in the synthesis of biomolecules.

Condensation in a biological reaction: what is it?Any of a series of reactions known as condensation reactions occurs when two molecules join, typically with the help of a catalyst, and water or another simple molecule is eliminated. Self-condensation is the joining of two identical molecules.

Which are the four major biomolecules?Any of the various compounds created by cells and living things is referred to as a biomolecule, sometimes known as a biological molecule. Biomolecules come in a wide variety of shapes and sizes and serve a wide range of purposes. Proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, and carbohydrates are the four main categories of biomolecules.

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Maternal _____ is associated with increased risk of placenta previa, placental abruption, premature rupture of the membrane, preterm delivery, and restricted fetal growth.

Answers

Maternal hypertension is associated with an increased risk of placenta previa, placental abruption, premature rupture of the membrane, preterm delivery, and restricted fetal growth.

Placental abruption refers to a partial or complete separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. The mother may bleed as a result, and the baby's oxygen and nutritional needs may be hampered.

In the majority of cases, there is no known cause, however, risk factors can include substance abuse, abdominal trauma, and high blood pressure in the mother.

Without urgent medical treatment, a severe episode of placental abruption can have catastrophic repercussions for the woman and her unborn child, including death. Placental abruption is the term used to describe the placenta's partial or complete separation from the uterine wall. Mothers may bleed as a result of this. It might also affect the placenta's ability to transfer nutrients and oxygen from the mother's bloodstream to the developing baby through the uterus lining.

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Where is the centromere located on the chromosome, and what is its role?
Select one:

a.
It is exactly at the center and it is responsible for making the q-arm longer than the p-arm.

b.
It is not exactly at the center, and it always makes the p-arm longer than the q-arm.

c.
It is exactly at the center, and it attaches to spindle fibers during cell division.

d.
It is not exactly at center, and it attaches to spindle fibers during cell division.

Answers

Answer:

not to be special

Explanation:

not being special is going to give u many cool things like having a normally hard drive

The chemoreceptors in blood vessels that sense oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood are?

Answers

Answer:

There are two kinds of respiratory chemoreceptors: arterial chemoreceptors, which monitor and respond to changes in the partial pressure of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the arterial blood, and central chemoreceptors in the brain, which respond to changes in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in their immediate ...

If a cell has a relatively high energy need, you would expect it to have _________ mitochondria than a cell with a lower energy need.

Answers

If a cell has a relatively high energy need, you would expect it to have fewer mitochondria than a cell with a lower energy need. Mitochondria are membrane-bound cell organelles (mitochondrion, singular) that provide the majority of the chemical energy required to fuel the cell's metabolic activities. Mitochondria are structures within cells that transform energy from meals into a form that cells can use.

Each cell includes hundreds to thousands of mitochondria, which are found in the fluid that surrounds the nucleus (the cytoplasm). Mitochondria (singular: mitochondrion) are a double membrane-bound organelle found in most eukaryotic species. They are present inside the cytoplasm and serve as the cell's "digestive system."

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What do the processes of active transport and facilitated diffusion have in common?.

Answers

The common characteristic between active and Faciliated diffusion is that they use carrier protein in their transport.

Active transport is that type of diffusion in which molecules of the solution moves against the concentration gradient, which require energy in the form of ATP and and requirement of a carrier protein, usually a transmembrane protein for their transport.

Faciliated diffusion requires a carrier protein but not energy because the molecules move along the concentration gradient.

A Faciliated diffusion differs from passive diffusion in requirement of carrier protein, for their transport of molecules, as in passive diffusion no carrier protein is required. The diffusion takes place without energy requirement.

Osmosis is a part of passive transport, where the molecules move from their higher region concentration to lower concentration through a semi permeable membrane.

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In his cross, what did mendel do?
a) he did not use pure-breeding plants in his crosses.
b) he used plants that were heterozygous in his initial crosses.
c) he studied traits controlled by a single gene.

Answers

In his cross, Mendel studied traits that are typically controlled by a single gene. Thus, the correct option for this question is C.

Who is Mendel?

John Gregor Mendel is known as the father of genetics. He performed his experiments on pea plants. But initially, he tried his experiments on honey bees, mice, and hawkweed.

Later, he selected 34 varieties of pea plants and works for 2 years, and then he selected one out of 34 i.e. Pisum sativum. The most important concept of his experiments is that he only studied traits controlled by a single gene. For example, seed color, seed coat, flower color, stem length, etc. The genes of these are located on differents sets of chromosomes.

Therefore, in his cross, Mendel studied traits that are typically controlled by a single gene. Thus, the correct option for this question is C.

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Some of the functions of the eukaryotic organelles are performed in bacteria by the:_____.

Answers

Some of the functions of the eukaryotic organelles are performed in bacteria by the Cell Wall.

Cell Wall- The often rigid, non-living, porous wall that protects the plasma membrane, encloses and supports the cells of the majority of plants, bacteria, fungus, and algae, and is usually non-living.

Eukaryotic Organism- Every creature or cell with an identifiable nucleus. The nucleus of a eukaryotic cell, which houses the very well chromosomes (bodies holding the genetic material), is surrounded by a nuclear membrane.

Chromosome- A component that can be found in a cell's nucleus. Proteins and DNA are arranged into genes on a chromosome. There are typically 23 pairs of chromosomes in each cell.

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Carbohydrates that are not hydrolyzed enzymatically can be fermented by gut bacteria into _________________ in the large intestine.

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Carbohydrates that are not hydrolyzed enzymatically can be fermented by gut bacteria into short chain fatty acids in the large intestine.

Carbohydrates are chemically polyhydroxy ketones and aldehydes. They can be divided into three classes: monosaccharides, disaccharides and polysaccharides. Monosaccharides act as the monomeric unit for the formation of di- and polysaccharides. Carbohydrates serve several functions like energy-containing compounds or structural compounds.

Short chain fatty acids are the fatty acids with less than 6 carbon atoms. They are formed inside the colon by certain bacteria and are an indicator of good colon health. The example are butyrate, acetate, propionate, etc. They also have anti-inflammatory properties.

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The cftr receptor moves chloride ions out of a cell by active transport. this is an example of?

Answers

This is an example of a reaction requiring the input of energy (ATP). CFTR belongs to a vast superfamily of ATP binding cassette transporters that have two nucleotide binding domains with unique sequences or "motifs." Unlike most other ATP binding cassette transporters, CFTR uses ATP to actively transport diverse substrates.

When food molecules are broken down, ATP Adenosine creates chemical energy and uses it to fuel other cellular processes. In the mitochondria of a cell, the process of cellular respiration also results in the production of ATP. Anaerobic respiration, which doesn't require oxygen, or aerobic respiration, which does, are both options for doing CFTR.

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A(n) __________ amino acid is one that is needed in the diet because it cannot be made in the body or cannot be made in adequate quantities for sustaining the body's needs.

Answers

Answer:

Essential

Explanation:

essential amino acids

Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials are characterized by _______ of the postsynaptic membrane.

Answers

Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials are characterized by hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane.

What is hyperpolarization?

A cell's membrane potential might become more negatively charged during hyperpolarization. Depolarization is the opposite of this. The stimulus needed to raise the membrane potential to the action potential threshold is increased, which suppresses action potentials.

In neurons, the cell experiences hyperpolarization right after an action potential is generated. The neuron enters a refractory phase while hyperpolarized, lasting around 2 milliseconds, during which the neuron is unable to produce further action potentials. K+ and Na+ ions are redistributed by sodium-potassium ATPases until the membrane potential returns to its resting potential, which is somewhere about -70 millivolts, at which time the neuron is once more prepared to transmit another action potential.

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what would happen if we removeda link in the food chain?​

Answers

The link before what we removed would thrive and have a much larger population, the link after the one we removed would starve and have to either find a new food source or die

Which of the organelles have their own dna separate from dna contained in the nucleus?

Answers

Mitochondria and chloroplasts are the two organelles that have their DNA separated from the DNA contained in the nucleus.

Organelles are the specialized organs for a eukaryotic cell to perform various functions. They are usually protected by a membrane(s) and are found in the cytoplasm of the cell. The various organelles found in a eukaryotic cell are the nucleus, peroxisomes, lysosomes, mitochondria, chloroplasts, ribosomes, Golgi apparatus, and endoplasmic reticulum.

The nucleus is the site for DNA replication. It then produces RNA by the process of transcription. This RNA is then transferred to ribosomes for protein synthesis. These synthesized proteins are then transferred to various cell organelles to perform their specific functions.

Meanwhile, the mitochondria and chloroplasts are the two organelles that do not need proteins synthesized by the ribosomes. They can synthesize their proteins themselves as they have their DNA separated from the DNA of the nucleus. Because of this characteristic, they are also referred to as semi-autonomous.

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Generalized loss of brain tissue that results from direct alcohol toxicity is associated with alcoholic blank______, which is a global decline of intellect.

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Generalized loss of brain tissue that results from direct alcohol toxicity is associated with Alcoholic dementia.

Alcohol-related dementia (ARD) is a type of dementia brought on by prolonged, excessive alcohol use, which damages the brain and impairs cognitive function.

Wet brain, sometimes referred to as Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, is another type of ARD that is characterized by short-term memory loss and thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency.

Patients with ARD frequently exhibit both type's symptoms, such as memory loss, apathy, and impaired planning. ARD may coexist with different types of dementia (mixed dementia). Despite being widely accepted, the diagnosis of ARD is only occasionally used because there aren't any clear diagnostic criteria.

Hence, the patients with generalized loss of brain tissue due to direct consumption of alcohol suffers from alcoholic dementia which causes memory loss and many other problems.

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When jeremy smith was in the shower, the hot water ran out. the cold water caused the hairs on his skin to stand up. this body response to cold is known as ________.

Answers

This body response to cold is known as piloerection.

What is piloerection?

The involuntary contraction of tiny muscles at the base of hair follicles as a reflexive response of the sympathetic nervous system, particularly in response to cold, shock, or fear, causing an erection or bristling of hairs.

As mentioned in the question, Jeremy Smith was in the shower, the hot water ran out and then she used cold water on her skin. the cold water caused the hairs on his skin to stand up. this body response to cold is known as piloerection.

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What makes up the organic matrix component of bone?
a. minerals and cells only
b. type i collagen and noncollagenous proteins
c. cells and collagen only
d. cells only

Answers

Type I collagen and non collagenous proteins makes up the organic matrix component of bone.

Which components make up the matrix of bone?

The material found between cells in bone tissue is called bone matrix. The matrix of bones is composed of both organic and inorganic elements. Collagen makes up the majority of the organic component of the bone matrix. The bone matrix is composed of 67% inorganic material, primarily calcium phosphate crystals called hydroxyapatite.

What produces organic bone matrix?

However, collagen is the main organic component. The osteoblasts and osteocytes that release type I collagen are responsible for around 90% of the organic component of the bone matrix. Collagen and calcium phosphate, which are the two main components of bone, set it apart from other hard tissues like chitin, enamel, and shell.

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The fact that the base of the basilar membrane responds best to high frequencies supports the ________ theory of hearing.

Answers

The fact that the base of the basilar membrane responds best to high frequencies supports the Place theory of hearing.

The place theory of hearing states that the different parts of the basilar membrane respond to sounds of different frequencies.

As mentioned, the base part of the basilar membrane responds best to high frequencies but the tip of the basilar membrane won't respond in the same way. the tip of the basilar membrane will respond best to sounds of low frequency.

It also states that the pitch of a sound is determined by the place of vibration of the membrane.

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Which type of stimulus following a behavior removes something that is unpleasant? positive reinforcer negative punisher positive punisher negative reinforcer

Answers

The type of stimulus following a behavior removes something that is unpleasant is the negative reinforcer.

Stimulus is any signal. This can be in the form of touch, smell, taste, etc. This stimulus triggers the nerve cells of the body that send to signals to the brain to generate a response. For example, when one person touches a hot utensil, the touch of heat acts as a stimulus, where the brain sends response in the form of instantly removal of the hand.

Negative reinforcement is the response towards a stimuli that has not yet been received. For example, taking a medicine before any disease appears  is the acts of negative reinforcement.

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What affect does an increase in enzyme concentration have on the reaction rate?

Answers

Explanation:

Increase in enzyme concentration will provide faster metabolic reaction to the point of saturation of the enzymes active center.

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