Nurse is preparing to complete a comprehensive assessment on a client. when collecting objective data, what would the nurse do first?

Answers

Answer 1

After evaluating and documenting the information obtained from the client, the nurse needs to analyze the data collected.

What preparation needs to be completed by the nurse before performing the client's physical assessment?

The nurse should perform hand hygiene before starting the physical assessment. This includes before collecting equipment. Auscultation and palpitation should not occur until hand hygiene has been performed.

With this information, we can conclude that It is a deliberative, comparative and ongoing process and self-assessment to determine whether the initial questions have been answered and what lessons to be learned from the shortcomings identified. The final process serves to analyze all the variables that culminated in the final outcome.

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Related Questions

Jack, one of your subordinates, seems to care so much about being liked that he rarely states strong opinions in meetings of your department. based on this, jack probably has a?

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Jack care so much about being liked that he rarely states strong opinions in meetings this shows that Jack probably has a: Strong need for affiliation.

Need for affiliation:

A requirement for amicable and open interpersonal interactions is the need for affiliation. In other words, it is the desire for a partnership built on understanding and cooperation.

Everyone has three different categories of requirements, which according to McClelland's needs theory help identify each person's individual profile and aid in comprehending and creating motivational practices for each type of profile.

In this case, JACK exhibits actions that emphasize interpersonal ties, interaction and care so much about being liked  while avoiding and resolving conflict with others hence he rarely states strong opinions in meetings of the department , demonstrating a strong need for affiliation. The ease with which each person interacts with clients and their ability to adapt to company norms and procedures are its strengths.

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The nurse is teaching a nutrition class about dietary reference intakes (dris). the nurse would correctly state that this collection includes which reference set?

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The nurse is teaching a nutrition class about dietary reference intakes (dris). the nurse would correctly state that this collection includes

Tolerable Upper Intake.

What is a Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL)?

Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL)  is the highest level of average daily nutrient intake that is likely to pose no risk of adverse health effects to almost all individuals in the general population. The UL  is a component of five references that make up DRIs. The DRI doesn't provide physical activity recommendations or nutritional density values. Healthy People may be a  program conducted by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services that sets public health goals and objectives and monitors the nation's progress toward meeting those objectives.

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The nurse is assigned a patient who is experiencing chest pain resulting from coronary artery spasms while at rest. the nurse quickly realizes that the patient is suffering from?

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According to the research, the correct option is Prinzmetal angina. A patient who is experiencing chest pain resulting from coronary artery spasms while at rest is suffering from Prinzmetal angina.

What is Prinzmetal angina?

It is a heart disorder characterized by cycles of angina or abnormal contraction of the epicardial coronary arteries caused by vasospasm, a narrowing of the coronary arteries.

In this sense, the symptoms usually occur at rest, and not with exertion, unlike typical angina, causing occlusion, slowing or temporarily stopping the blood flow that nourishes the heart.

Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, the correct option is Prinzmetal angina. A patient who is experiencing chest pain resulting from coronary artery spasms while at rest is suffering from Prinzmetal angina.

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The nurse understands that the action of most diuretics typically results in which effects?

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Results in

Loss of waterLoss of chloride

What are Diuretics?

Diuretics, often known as water pills, aid in the removal of salt (sodium) and water from the body. The majority of these drugs encourage your kidneys to excrete more sodium in your urine. By assisting in the removal of water from your circulation, salt aids to reduce the volume of fluid moving through your veins and arteries. Blood pressure falls as a result.

Diuretics are prescribed to treat heart failure, hypertension, and edema. – Different areas of the nephron are affected by diuretics. – They are frequently referred to as "water pills" because their function is to promote Na+ and water absorption as well as urine production.

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Jack, who is wheelchair-bound, is upset because it seems as if his physical disability determines, nearly entirely, how others interact with him. why might this be happening?

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Answer:

Well it's because he is not able to walk.And he is always in a wheelchair

For diarrhea caused by bacterial or viral infections, dietary restrictions (e.g., limiting the diet to include only bananas, rice, applesauce, and toast) are usually ______ for recovery.

Answers

For diarrhea caused by bacterial or viral infections, dietary restrictions (e.g., limiting the diet to include only bananas, rice, applesauce, and toast) are usually not necessary for recovery.

What are dietary restrictions?

An individual's options for food are constrained by dietary restrictions. Some are brought on by allergies, while others are motivated by social decisions, lifestyle adjustments, and health fads. A dietary restriction won't be life-threatening in this meaning of the definition, but that doesn't mean you shouldn't pay attention.

Dietary restrictions (such as restricting the diet to mainly bananas, rice, applesauce, and toast) are typically not required for recovery from diarrhea brought on by bacterial or viral infections.

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4.a nurse is caring for a new mother who is concerned that her newborn's eyes cross. what would be a therapeutic response by the nurse?

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The nurse will respond “This is normal because newborns lack the muscle control necessary to regulate eye movement".

What are the characteristics of the eyes of newborns?

A newborn's vision ranges from 20/200 to 20/400 at birth. They are more likely to open their eyes in dim light because they are sensitive to bright light. If your infant's eyes occasionally cross or stray outward, don't be alarmed (go "wall-eyed"). This is typical until your baby's vision gets better and his or her eye muscles get stronger. However, the eyes often straighten up by the time a baby is 4-6 months old. Even occasionally, one or both eyes may continue to stray in, out, up, or down. This is likely the result of strabismus.

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Provide a 5-7 sentence summary on the benefits of EMRs

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Answer:

Securely sharing electronic information with patients and other clinicians. Helping providers more effectively diagnose patients, reduce medical errors, and provide safer care.

The nurse is assessing a client with thyrotoxicosis and the nurse is explaining how the thyroid gland is stimulated to release thyroid hormones. the nurse should describe what process?

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If the nurse is assessing a client with thyrotoxicosis then she/he should describe the action of releasing hormones from the hypothalamus.

What is thyrotoxicosis?

Thyrotoxicosis can be defined as a health problem where the thyroid gland secretes excessive amounts of hormones, thereby affecting the metabolic rate of the individual.

In conclusion, if the nurse is assessing a client with thyrotoxicosis and explains how the thyroid gland is stimulated to release thyroid hormones, then she/he should describe the action of releasing hormones from the hypothalamus.

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Which situation is a common area of conflict with the ethical prinicple of beneficence seen in nursing profession?

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The situation that is a common area of conflict with the ethical prinicple of beneficence seen in nursing profession is Refusing to follow through on a patient's advance directive.

What is the ethical prinicple of beneficence?

The ethical prinicple of beneficence is defined as the rule that demands a health care provider (a nurse) to act according to a way that will benefit the health of their patient.

An advance directive is a legal document that states a person's wishes about receiving medical care if that person is no longer able to make medical decisions because of a serious illness or injury.

Some of this wishes may include to remove life support of the patient when all hope is lost.

This is indeed a conflict against the ethical prinicple of beneficence as it actually harms the patient instead of doing no harm.

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What nutrient delivers oxygen to the body through the bloodstream and can be found in meat, seafood, poultry, whole-
grain products, and dark green leafy vege[ables?
vitamin D
O
iron
magnesium
vitamin C

Answers

Answer:

Iron.

Explanation:

Iron is found in red blood cells, where it carries oxygen to the rest the body. Also, iron is found in many meats, dark green vegetables, and whole grains.

The nurse identifies the primarty reason for elderly adults to have problems with constipation is becaue of which process?

Answers

The primary reason for elderly adults to have problems with constipation is because they are less active and therefore has decreased GI muscle tone.

Constipation is the ineffective or non-removal of the stools from the rectum. The stool usually is dry and hard during constipation. The primary reason for this can be less amount of fibers and fruits in diet. Immobility and lack of physical activity may also cause constipation.

GI muscle tone can be defined as the active movements or contractions of the GI muscles. This can be related to the physical fitness of an individual. A person who is more active in routine life has more and better GI muscle tone.  

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The nurse assists with medication reconciliation for a client visiting the clinic for a follow-up appointment. which medication reported by the client requires further investigation?

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The medication, 200 mg of celecoxib taken once daily would require further investigation.

What is celecoxib?

NSAIDs, such as celecoxib, are used to treat inflammation (NSAID). It works by lowering hormones in the body that promote inflammation and discomfort.Ankylosing spondylitis, arthritis, and menstruation cramps are just a few of the ailments that celecoxib is used to treat.

Celecoxib is used for the treatment of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis for children if they are atleast 2 years of age.. It's also utilised to treat hereditary polyps in the colon.

Therefore, the medication, 200 mg of celecoxib taken once daily would require further investigation.

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How would you design an experiment to test if a taller beak confers a fitness benefit during a drought?

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To design an experiment to test if a taller beak confers a fitness benefit during a drought

1. State the hypothesis

2. Describe how you would set the rainfall pattern on each

What are the characteristics of an experiment?

A scientist has got to use numbers and units to describe his findings, and his experiment has got to facilitate the collection of that data. Finally, experiments need to control for multiple variables.  that if more than one variable is affecting the experiment, then just one variable should be affecting it at a time.

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Which condition would the nurse provide information about to a patient wanting a tattoo?

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The condition the nurse would notify a patient who wants a tattoo is non-TB mycobacterial infections that may be associated with the procedure.

What are non-TB mycobacterial infections?

Non-TB mycobacterial infections (also known as non-tuberculous mycobacterial lung diseases) refer to a broad group of infections caused by bacteria capable of triggering respiratory diseases.

In conclusion, the condition the nurse would notify a patient who wants a tattoo is non-TB mycobacterial infections that may be associated with the procedure.

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The nurse is providing education regarding drug distribution to a patient. which factors affect drug distribution in the body? select all that apply

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The nurse is providing education regarding drug distribution to a patient. the factors affect drug distribution in the body are: -

a) Amount of blood flow to the body tissues

c) Medications being fat or water soluble

Factors Influencing the Distribution of Drugs

Vengamma Ramineni

2020 Tuesday, October 6

The medications are put through a series of procedures known as disposition processes, which have the tendency to reduce the drug's plasma concentration.

The procedures for drug disposal are:

1. Distribution - In this process, a medication is transferred reversibly across compartments.

2. Elimination - In this process, the medication is permanently removed from the body by biotransformation and excretion.

Definition

The reversible transport of a drug from one compartment (blood) to another is known as drug distribution (extravascular tissue).

The gradient in concentration between the blood and extravascular tissues drives distribution, which is a passive process.

Diffusion of the free drug causes this process to continue until equilibrium is reached.

These activities are involved in drug distribution two steps:

Free medication in the blood passes past the capillary wall and enters the interstitial/extracellular fluid (ECF).

Drugs can pass through tissue cell membranes and into intracellular fluid (ICF) from extracellular fluid (ECF). This process is rate-limited and is affected by two variables:

the ECF's rate of perfusion, and

Drug Permeability across Membranes.

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The abc corporation chose a high-deductible health plan (hdhp) for the purpose of:____.

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The correct answer is working with the HSA it planned to provide to its 700 full-time workers .

health plan that offers drastically lower rates in alternate for the insured's willingness to pay a comparatively big deductible.

A health insurance plan having a excessive deductible for medical prices is known as a high-deductible fitness plan (HDHP).An HDHP regularly has cheaper month-to-month premiums however a better yearly deductible (on occasion inside the 4 figures) than a ordinary health plan. recurring preventive care is absolutely covered by using insurance plans, for this reason there are no copays or coinsurance requirements for clients. The bare minimal deductible modifications every 12 months. An HDHP is one which has a minimal deductible of $1,400 for humans and $2,800 for households for the years 2021 and 2022, in line with the IRS.

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Question 1
What is preventative care?

Answers

Helps. Detect or prevent serious deseases
Preventive healthcare, or prophylaxis, consists of measures taken for the purposes of disease prevention. Disease and disability are affected by environmental factors, genetic predisposition, disease agents, and lifestyle choices, and are dynamic processes which begin before individuals realize they are affected.

PROJECT: POSTURE

Here are your goals for this project:


Identify the relationship between good posture and your appearance.

Demonstrate some skill in practicing good posture.

Answers

In addition to improving looks, good posture provides various health advantages, such as: Supports healthy alignment of bones and joints. encourages the effective and efficient usage of your body's muscles. reduces abnormal joint surface wear and strain.

How important is posture?

A confident, self-respecting person will have good body posture and regard for their audience. Additionally, maintaining a straight posture conveys that you value the conversation and are engaged in what the other person is saying.

To assist reduce muscle tension, gently stretch your muscles occasionally. Keep your feet on the floor with your ankles in front of your knees and avoid crossing your legs. If it's not possible to have your feet on the floor, utilize a footrest. Your shoulders shouldn't be tense or rounded off.

Your general health depends on having good posture, which has many advantages such as fewer back discomfort, more energy, and more self-assurance.

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The alternation between soloist and chorus heard in this alleluia is best described as ________ singing.
a. direct
b. antiphonal
c. responsorial
d. syncopated

Answers

The alternation between soloist and chorus heard in this alleluia is best described as responsorial singing.

What is an alleluia?

Alleluia also known as hallelujah refers to a liturgical chant in which that word is combined with verses of scripture.

From the question above, the alternation between soloist and chorus heard in this alleluia is best described as responsorial singing.

Alleluia is mostly known and used by the Christian religion, and is found to be used around 24 times in the Hebrew scriptures.

In conclusion, responsorial singing can be described as a style of singing in which a leader alternates with a chorus and it is mostly used in liturgical chants.

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The nurse should consider teratogenic effects when caring for what clients? (select all that apply.)

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The nurse should consider teratogenic effects when caring for:

A 29 year old client recovering prenatal care in her first trimester of pregnancy

A 37 year old female client who is taking fertility drugs.

What is a teratogen?

Any substance that exposes a fetus to an abnormality while the mother is pregnant is considered a teratogen. Teratogens are typically identified following an increase in the prevalence of a specific birth abnormality.

A teratogen is a chemical that can harm a growing fetus by causing abnormalities or birth defects. Some pharmaceuticals, illicit drugs, tobacco, chemicals, alcohol, some diseases, and in some situations, unmanaged health issues in the expectant parent are examples of common teratogens.

This should be considered for the clients illustrated above.

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How soon after chlorpromazine administration should a nurse expect to see a client's delusional thoughts and hallucinations eliminated?

Answers

Although the majority of phenothiazines start to work within minutes to hours, antipsychotic effects might take weeks to manifest.

What are phenothiazines?

The severe mental and emotional issues that are addressed with phenothiazines include schizophrenia and other psychotic diseases. Some are also used to treat moderate to severe pain in some hospitalized patients, severe hiccups, extreme nausea, and agitation in some patients.

Additionally, some types of porphyria and tetanus are treated with chlorpromazine in combination with other drugs. Phenothiazines may also be prescribed by your doctor for other conditions. These unwanted, uncomfortable, and uncontrollable facial or body movements could continue after you stop using phenothiazines.

They might also lead to additional negative, risky results. With your doctor, go through the advantages of this drug as well as any potential adverse effects.

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Analyze the vintage cigarette advertisement. How is the tobacco company reaching potential customers? Check all that apply.

Answers

Tobacco companies reach out to potential customers for the following reasons:

a. luring kids in with the promise of Santa Claus.

b. touching people on an emotional level by creating holiday connections.

c. making tobacco seem wholesome and good.

Describe tobacco.

A plant belonging to the genus Nicotiana is tobacco.

Tobacco leaves that have been dried are used for smoking.

Smoking is harmful to your health because it causes a number of diseases.

One ailment brought on by tobacco is cancer.

The choices that are appropriate are a. luring kids with the promise of Santa Claus.

b. influencing individuals emotionally through holiday connections.

c. making tobacco appear healthy and beneficial.

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An example of tcs food is diced cranberries.
a. dried parsley.
b. sliced cantaloupe.
c. chopped celery.

Answers

An example of TCS food is diced cranberries:

b. sliced cantaloupe.

What does the term TCS food mean?

TCS food stands for time and temperature control for food safety. TCS food needs temperature and time control to stay fresh. TCS food stands for time and temperature control for food safety. Again, ready-to-eat food requires no further preparation, washing, or cooking. Consider any food that you can simply grab and pop into your mouth. TCS food, on the other hand, has a slightly acidic pH and contains moisture and protein. To keep TCS food safe for an extended period of time, temperature and timing control are required.

What is the optimal temperature for cooking TCS food?

TCS hot foods should be kept at 135°F or higher. Frozen foods can be thawed in the refrigerator, under running water, or while cooking. NEVER allow frozen foods to thaw at room temperature. Cook TCS foods to the minimum required temperature, as listed on our safe minimum internal cooking temperatures guide.

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What are the three primary categories into which levels of physical activity can be grouped?.

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The three primary categories into which levels of physical activity can be grouped are light, moderate, and vigorous.

What are light-moderate and vigorous physical activities?

75–90% of your maximum heart rate is considered vigorous intensity. Your maximum heart rate is between 65-74% for moderate intensity. 55–64% of your maximum heart rate is considered light intensity.

What is the example of light moderate-vigorous?

Compared to light activities, these activities require more oxygen consumption. Sweeping the floor, strolling quickly, slow dancing, vacuuming, washing windows, and shooting a basketball are a few instances of moderate physical activity. Activities with an intensity of more than six METS are considered vigorous.

How do you determine if the physical activity is light-moderate or vigorous?

A quick method to evaluate relative intensity is the conversation test. In general, you can converse but not sing while engaging in moderate-intensity exercise. In general, you won't be able to speak for more than a few words without pausing to take a breath if you're engaging in vigorous-intensity activities.

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A 20-year-old woman has been prescribed estrogen. as with all women taking estrogen, the nurse will carefully monitor the client for?

Answers

cardiovascular complications.

The cardiovascular system is known to be affected by estrogen in a variety of ways, both good and bad:

HDL cholesterol is raised (the good kind)LDL cholesterol is reduced (the bad kind)induces certain modifications that have the reverse effect of promoting blood clot development as well.increases blood flow by relaxing, squeezing, and dilating blood vessels.absorbs free radicals, which are blood-borne, naturally occurring particles that have the potential to harm tissues like the arteries.

Other, as of yet unrecognized effects of estrogen on the cardiovascular system are likely. The body of knowledge regarding this crucial and contentious hormone continues to grow as a result of new studies, which also raises more uncertainties.

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A nurse receives an order to apply graduated compression stockings for a client at risk for venous thromboembolism. how should the nurse apply the stockings?

Answers

The procedure to apply the stockings for a client at risk for venous thromboembolism is that if the client was sitting up, make him or her lie down and elevate feet for 15 minutes before applying stockings.

What is thromboembolism?

A thromboembolism results due to a thrombosis.

A thrombosis is a blood clot. Therefore, a  thromboembolism is a circulating blood clot that gets stuck and causes an obstruction of blood flow.

Venous thromboembolism occurs in the vein.

Thromboembolism have been implicated in heart attacks and strokes

In conclusion, venous thromboembolism is thromboembolism that occurs in the veins and poses the risk of a heart attack or stroke.

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The depressed client is receiving light therapy. which instruction would the nurse share with the client?

Answers

The answer to the question is "You will sit in front of the light box with your eyes open."

What is the rationale for using light therapy?

UV-blocking plastic screens are placed over white fluorescent tubes used in light therapy. No use is made of LED lights or safety goggles.

The person is seated in front of the box with his or her eyes open (although the client should not look directly into the light).

Sessions for light treatment typically last between 10 and 15 minutes at first, increasing eventually to 30 to 45 minutes. Sessions don't begin at 5 minutes and progress to 30 minute blocks.

The mechanism of action of light treatment is thought to involve retinal activation, not vagal stimulation, which causes an increase in serotonin in the brain while reducing melatonin levels.

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You are at the scene of an emergency. there is an unconscious adult and a conscious child. how would you obtain consent to care for both of these individuals?

Answers

A aware infant and an unconscious adult exist. You already have their permission because they are unconscious. You have their approval if your child's parent(s) are not there. If the person's breathing or pulse ever stops, flip them onto their back and start CPR.

If you suspect infant someone has suffered a spinal injury, leave them alone (as long as breathing continues). If the youngster is the sufferer, roll their entire body to the side at once. If the person is unconscious but breathing, place them in the recovery position with their head lower than their torso and call an ambulance immediately.

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Which hematocrit result would the nurse recognize as normal in a healthy 12-month-old infant?

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The hematocrit result which the nurse would recognize as normal in a healthy 12-month-old infant is 29% to 41%.

Your hematocrit result are reported as number. That number is the percentage of our blood that is made from red blood cells. as an example, if your hematocrit check result's forty two, it means forty second of your blood is red blood cells and also the rest is white blood cells, platelets, and blood plasma.

If infant has low hematocrit result, it means that you'll have: Anemia. White blood cell cancers, like leukaemia. Chronic unwellness. Bleeding.

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