Epithelial tissue covers external and internal surfaces.
In the field of science, epithelial tissue can be described as the tissues which line the internal surfaces of organs and cover the external surfaces in the body of an organism. Hence, the correct option is c. epithelial tissue.
The epithelial tissues of the body perform various functions such as protecting the other body tissues. There are certain epithelial tissues present in the glands which aid in the secretion of various enzymes and hormones. They also aid in the absorption of materials in the liver and lung cells. They help in the process of excretion by producing sweat. They also help the kidneys in filtering blood.
Option a is not correct because nervous tissues are in the interior of the body.
Option b is not correct because connective tissue covers the internal organs but it is not present in external surfaces.
Option d is not correct because muscle tissues are present in the interior of the body, not the exterior.
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A(n) __________ amino acid is one that is needed in the diet because it cannot be made in the body or cannot be made in adequate quantities for sustaining the body's needs.
Answer:
Essential
Explanation:
essential amino acids
Carbohydrates that are not hydrolyzed enzymatically can be fermented by gut bacteria into _________________ in the large intestine.
Carbohydrates that are not hydrolyzed enzymatically can be fermented by gut bacteria into short chain fatty acids in the large intestine.
Carbohydrates are chemically polyhydroxy ketones and aldehydes. They can be divided into three classes: monosaccharides, disaccharides and polysaccharides. Monosaccharides act as the monomeric unit for the formation of di- and polysaccharides. Carbohydrates serve several functions like energy-containing compounds or structural compounds.
Short chain fatty acids are the fatty acids with less than 6 carbon atoms. They are formed inside the colon by certain bacteria and are an indicator of good colon health. The example are butyrate, acetate, propionate, etc. They also have anti-inflammatory properties.
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How does variation in molecular units provide cells with a wider range of functions?
Variation in molecular units provides cells with a wider range of functions as: Proteins have variation in their structure which changes the function of the protein and Gene expression proteins have regulatory proteins, which help in controlling gene expression.
Eukaryotic cell have lots of organelles such as the the ribosomes which make proteins for the cell. Because of different kind of molecular units such as flagellum, ribosomes, and cell walls, cells are able to preform many functions at once. The variation of the molecular units and organelles allow the cell to do may things at once. Species with genetic variation and its resultant phenotypes can respond and adapt to changing environmental conditions.
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Some eukaryotic cells move by the restructuring of microfilaments. this enables the cells to send out long projections of the cytoplasm covered in cell membrane. what are these projections called?
This type of projection is called pseudopodia
A pseudopod is a momentary, armlike extension of the membrane of a eukaryotic cell that faces the direction of motion. Actin filaments make up the majority of the cytoplasm filled pseudopodia, which may also contain microtubules and intermediate filaments.
Pseudopods are employed for ingestion and motility. Pseudopodia enable a cell to move along a substrate by pulling or crawling. Amoeboid movement is the term used to describe cell movement via pseudopodia.
Broad, flat pseudopodia called lamellipodia are employed for locomotion. A mesh like internal network is sustained by microfilaments that form at the leading edge.
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For each of the following processes list the spheres where matter begins the process and the sphere where matter ends the process.
The description of the spheres where matter begins the process and the sphere where matter ends the process is as follows:
Hydrosphere to AtmosphereHydrosphere to BiosphereAtmosphere to BiosphereGeosphere to AtmosphereGeosphere to HydrosphereWhat are the spheres of life?The spheres of life are four in number as follows:
Hydrosphere; refers to all the liquid waters of the EarthGeosphere; refers to the solid body of the Earth e.g. rocks, sedimentsBiosphere; refers to the part of the Earth capable of supporting life.Atmosphere; refers to the gases surrounding the Earth or any astronomical body e.g. oxygen in the airAccording to this question, a chart that relates these four spheres are given. We are expected to state the spheres where matter begins the process and the sphere where matter ends the process. They are as follows beginning from the second one;
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How do you think the reactivity of aluminium compares to the reactivity of other metals?
In a complex, a more reactive metal will replace a less reactive metal. Aluminum replaces iron in iron(III) oxide because it is more reactive than iron. Iron is decreased when aluminum eliminates oxygen from iron(III) oxide.
Despite being such a reactive metal, aluminum does not react well with airborne oxygen. Because it has previously reacted, the aluminum oxide has developed into a thin, strongly bound layer that shields the aluminum foil from additional attacks, which is why it does not react.
The metal aluminum is quite reactive. It easily generates a layer of aluminum oxide on its surface when oxygen from the air reacts with it. This coating of aluminum oxide is exceedingly thick and prevents air from entering the metal to cause further reactions.
Aluminum is a reactive metal that is challenging to separate from aluminum oxide, its source (Al2O3). The fact that aluminum oxidizes quickly and that its oxide is an exceptionally stable molecule that, unlike rust on iron, does not flake off makes aluminum one of the hardest metals on Earth to purify.
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Research has found that obesity is related to high blood pressure. this finding means that:_____.
Research has found that obesity is related to high blood pressure. This finding means Obesity is a risk factor for high blood pressure.
Obesity-related hypertension is one of the important public health issue. As the obesity increases, the hypertension with its associated cardiovascular risk will increase. Obesity is an risk factor for the development of cardiovascular diseases such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, coronary heart disease and heart failure, also the possible existence of a metabolically healthy obese phenotype (which could be more appropriately be referred as a lower-risk form of obesity), the important role of regional body fat distribution and ectopic fat accumulation and presence of an obesity and/or BMI paradox in patients with coronary heart disease are all observations that emphasize the remarkable heterogeneity of obesity well.
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What affect does an increase in enzyme concentration have on the reaction rate?
Explanation:
Increase in enzyme concentration will provide faster metabolic reaction to the point of saturation of the enzymes active center.
In the event of a bee sting or similar unexpected occurrences, what are the safest, most appropriate steps to take?
Treatment for bee sting reactions:
The treatment for bee sting reaction will depend upon the severity of the allergic reaction:
Treating a mild to moderate reaction
Treating a severe reaction
Long-term treatment
Taking care of a mild to moderate reaction
Remove the stinger as quickly as you can after been stung by a bee, being careful not to squeeze the venom sac. To do this, one might want to utilize a set of tweezers. The amount of venom delivered into the bloodstream will be reduced by removing the stinger.To assist lessen itching and irritation, use a cold compress, apply steroid ointments, and take antihistamines.Within a few days, the symptoms ought to go away.-Treating a severe reaction
An immediate injection of epinephrine, which will assist to lessen the severity of the allergic reaction, is required for severe, systemic reactions. Additionally, oxygen and intravenous fluids may be given by doctors.A person should use an EpiPen (an injectable tool for epinephrine) right away if they have one. A severe allergic reaction's symptoms are momentarily reversed with epinephrine. An EpiPen should always be carried by someone with a serious allergy.Even if they have self-administered epinephrine, anyone exhibiting one or more anaphylactic symptoms should visit an emergency department as soon as they can.The patient should lay on their back with their feet elevated while they wait for the emergency services to arrive.Long-term treatment
Immunotherapy for desensitization is a therapy used to lessen a patient's sensitivity to specific allergens. Someone who has had a severe allergic reaction to bee stings, or has other risk factors, can undergo a variant of this treatment known as venom immunotherapy (VIT) (VIT).VIT entails a series of injections of progressively more potent bee venom. The immune system can get tolerant to the venom by gradually increasing the dose over the course of around three years.to learn more about bee sting reactions click below-
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5 All of the following are examples of solutions expeept?
A Chocolate Milk
B Trail Mix
C Fruit Juice
D Vonilla ice cream.
Answer:
D
Explanation:
The term solution is an idea given whereby a solute ( dissolving substance) dissolves in a solvent( dissolving medium eg water)
solute + solvent = solution
Diabetic ketoacidosis (dka) in a client with type 1 diabetes occurs when the lack of insulin leads to the release of which physiologic product?
The answer to the above question is Fatty acids.
What are Fatty acids?A fatty acid is a carboxylic acid with an aliphatic chain that is either saturated or unsaturated. This definition applies to chemistry, particularly biochemistry. The majority of naturally occurring fatty acids have an unbranched chain with 4 to 28 carbon atoms, which is an even number. In some species, like microalgae, fatty acids make up a significant portion of the lipids (up to 70% by weight), but in other organisms, they are present as one of the three main types of esters: triglycerides, phospholipids, or cholesteryl esters rather than in their solo form. Fatty acids are crucial nutritional sources of energy for animals in any of these forms, as well as crucial cellular building blocks.
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Complete the sentences describing the properties of water that contribute to its role as a solvent in living organisms.
The unequal sharing of electrons between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms within a water molecule makes water a polar molecule.
Which property of water is used as a solvent in living organisms?Water is an excellent solvent because, provided the solute is nonpolar, it can be broken up and surrounded by water, which will dissolve it into solution. This is possible because of the electron configuration of a water molecule.
Water behaves in this way because the positive charge on the hydrogen end of the molecule is drawn to the negative charge of a polar molecule, while the negative charge on the oxygen end is drawn to the positive side of a polar molecule .
The "universal solvent" moniker refers to water's broad range of molecule-dissolving abilities, which are what make it such a vital life-sustaining force. Water's function as a solvent aids biological processes by facilitating the transportation and utilisation of nutrients and oxygen by cells.
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Which molecule demonstrates the widest range of functions due to its ability to adopt multiple conformations? dna rna both molecules carry out a wide range of activities within the cell.
The correct option is (b) RNA
RNA molecule demonstrates the widest range of functions due to its ability to adopt multiple conformations.
What allows RNA to fold?The ability of RNA to fold into many three-dimensional conformations allows it to fulfill a range of activities within the cell, including manufacturing proteins, controlling gene expression, and serving as a source of information for certain viruses. The majority of protein and RNA molecules, or at least their constituent sections or domains, spontaneously fold into intricate three-dimensional forms. Numerous RNAs have been shown to fold in vitro with unique contributions from folding kinetics and thermodynamic stability. The hairpin ribozyme, a tiny RNA that catalyzes an in vitro cleavage and ligation reaction that has been thoroughly studied, is one of these RNAs.
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What makes up the organic matrix component of bone?
a. minerals and cells only
b. type i collagen and noncollagenous proteins
c. cells and collagen only
d. cells only
Type I collagen and non collagenous proteins makes up the organic matrix component of bone.
Which components make up the matrix of bone?The material found between cells in bone tissue is called bone matrix. The matrix of bones is composed of both organic and inorganic elements. Collagen makes up the majority of the organic component of the bone matrix. The bone matrix is composed of 67% inorganic material, primarily calcium phosphate crystals called hydroxyapatite.
What produces organic bone matrix?However, collagen is the main organic component. The osteoblasts and osteocytes that release type I collagen are responsible for around 90% of the organic component of the bone matrix. Collagen and calcium phosphate, which are the two main components of bone, set it apart from other hard tissues like chitin, enamel, and shell.
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The fact that the base of the basilar membrane responds best to high frequencies supports the ________ theory of hearing.
The fact that the base of the basilar membrane responds best to high frequencies supports the Place theory of hearing.
The place theory of hearing states that the different parts of the basilar membrane respond to sounds of different frequencies.
As mentioned, the base part of the basilar membrane responds best to high frequencies but the tip of the basilar membrane won't respond in the same way. the tip of the basilar membrane will respond best to sounds of low frequency.
It also states that the pitch of a sound is determined by the place of vibration of the membrane.
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If nucleotides from the dna of a human were quantified and 30 percent of them contained the base adenine, what percentage of them would contain the base guanine?.
If 30% of the DNA is Adenine, then 20% will be guanine.
What is chargaff's rule?The molar ratios [A] = [T] and [C] = [G] were present in all species, and the ratio [C + G] / [A + T] was often lower than unity since [C + G] is a less common element. And Chargaff's rule name is given to these ratios.
Additionally, the molar similarities of A with T and C with G naturally support a certain type of combination link. Furthermore, Chargaff himself is unwilling to take a chance on claims of his experimental observation in the absence of new experimental ideas.
Additionally, he believed that Watson and Crick's model-building strategy was not grounded in science. Most notably, he later disparaged molecular biology in general and eventually grew frustrated at what he perceived as a refusal to acknowledge the significance of his work.
Therefore, in this case, 30% is Adenine and 30% will be Thymine, so the remaining 40% will be GC, out of which 20% will be Guanine.
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People with sickle-cell trait:____.
a) are heterozygous for the sickle-cell allele.
b) are usually healthy.
c) have increased resistance to malaria.
d) produce normal and abnormal hemoglobin.
The answer is all of the above.
What is sickle-cell trait?
Red blood cells with sickle cell disease are bent rather than spherical because it is an inherited blood ailment. Small blood vessels are blocked by these curved red blood cells. Organ damage and suffering may result from improper blood flow.
Option e (all of the above) is the correct choice.
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Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials are characterized by _______ of the postsynaptic membrane.
Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials are characterized by hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane.
What is hyperpolarization?A cell's membrane potential might become more negatively charged during hyperpolarization. Depolarization is the opposite of this. The stimulus needed to raise the membrane potential to the action potential threshold is increased, which suppresses action potentials.
In neurons, the cell experiences hyperpolarization right after an action potential is generated. The neuron enters a refractory phase while hyperpolarized, lasting around 2 milliseconds, during which the neuron is unable to produce further action potentials. K+ and Na+ ions are redistributed by sodium-potassium ATPases until the membrane potential returns to its resting potential, which is somewhere about -70 millivolts, at which time the neuron is once more prepared to transmit another action potential.
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Maternal _____ is associated with increased risk of placenta previa, placental abruption, premature rupture of the membrane, preterm delivery, and restricted fetal growth.
Maternal hypertension is associated with an increased risk of placenta previa, placental abruption, premature rupture of the membrane, preterm delivery, and restricted fetal growth.
Placental abruption refers to a partial or complete separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. The mother may bleed as a result, and the baby's oxygen and nutritional needs may be hampered.
In the majority of cases, there is no known cause, however, risk factors can include substance abuse, abdominal trauma, and high blood pressure in the mother.
Without urgent medical treatment, a severe episode of placental abruption can have catastrophic repercussions for the woman and her unborn child, including death. Placental abruption is the term used to describe the placenta's partial or complete separation from the uterine wall. Mothers may bleed as a result of this. It might also affect the placenta's ability to transfer nutrients and oxygen from the mother's bloodstream to the developing baby through the uterus lining.
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Where is the centromere located on the chromosome, and what is its role?
Select one:
a.
It is exactly at the center and it is responsible for making the q-arm longer than the p-arm.
b.
It is not exactly at the center, and it always makes the p-arm longer than the q-arm.
c.
It is exactly at the center, and it attaches to spindle fibers during cell division.
d.
It is not exactly at center, and it attaches to spindle fibers during cell division.
Answer:
not to be special
Explanation:
not being special is going to give u many cool things like having a normally hard drive
The chemoreceptors in blood vessels that sense oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood are?
Answer:
There are two kinds of respiratory chemoreceptors: arterial chemoreceptors, which monitor and respond to changes in the partial pressure of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the arterial blood, and central chemoreceptors in the brain, which respond to changes in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in their immediate ...
If a cell has a relatively high energy need, you would expect it to have _________ mitochondria than a cell with a lower energy need.
If a cell has a relatively high energy need, you would expect it to have fewer mitochondria than a cell with a lower energy need. Mitochondria are membrane-bound cell organelles (mitochondrion, singular) that provide the majority of the chemical energy required to fuel the cell's metabolic activities. Mitochondria are structures within cells that transform energy from meals into a form that cells can use.
Each cell includes hundreds to thousands of mitochondria, which are found in the fluid that surrounds the nucleus (the cytoplasm). Mitochondria (singular: mitochondrion) are a double membrane-bound organelle found in most eukaryotic species. They are present inside the cytoplasm and serve as the cell's "digestive system."
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An action potential involves na moving ________ the cell and k moving ________ the cell.
Inside, Outside
An action potential involves Na moving inside the cell and k moving outside the cell.
Na+ moves inside the cell during an action potential, and k+ moves outside the cell.Outside of the cells, natrium content is greater. The ion canals will open when an action potential occurs, allowing sodium or natrium to enter the cells. As a result, the potential will depolarize quickly and turn more positive. After some time, the potassium/kalium ion will leave the cell and repolarize the membrane potential, making it more negative once more.What is action potential? A abrupt, quick, transient, and propagating shift in the resting membrane potential is referred to as an action potential. The only cells that can produce action potentials are neurons and muscle cells; this quality is known as excitability.To learn more about action potential visit:
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What do the processes of active transport and facilitated diffusion have in common?.
The common characteristic between active and Faciliated diffusion is that they use carrier protein in their transport.
Active transport is that type of diffusion in which molecules of the solution moves against the concentration gradient, which require energy in the form of ATP and and requirement of a carrier protein, usually a transmembrane protein for their transport.
Faciliated diffusion requires a carrier protein but not energy because the molecules move along the concentration gradient.
A Faciliated diffusion differs from passive diffusion in requirement of carrier protein, for their transport of molecules, as in passive diffusion no carrier protein is required. The diffusion takes place without energy requirement.
Osmosis is a part of passive transport, where the molecules move from their higher region concentration to lower concentration through a semi permeable membrane.
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The __________ nervous system is comprised of the brain and spinal cord. a. somatic b. peripheral c. sympathetic d. central please select the best answer from the choices provided a b c d
Answer:
d. central nervous system
Answer:
d. central
Explanation:
When jeremy smith was in the shower, the hot water ran out. the cold water caused the hairs on his skin to stand up. this body response to cold is known as ________.
This body response to cold is known as piloerection.
What is piloerection?
The involuntary contraction of tiny muscles at the base of hair follicles as a reflexive response of the sympathetic nervous system, particularly in response to cold, shock, or fear, causing an erection or bristling of hairs.
As mentioned in the question, Jeremy Smith was in the shower, the hot water ran out and then she used cold water on her skin. the cold water caused the hairs on his skin to stand up. this body response to cold is known as piloerection.
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How increasing ghgs throws the energy balance out of equilibrium and the process that occurs to reach a new equilibrium?
Greenhouse gas emissions' capacity to increase global warming and the energy balance of our current atmosphere by selectively absorbing infrared light, greenhouse gases trap energy in the atmosphere.
In general, the rate at which energy is radiated from the atmosphere to the surface is higher than the rate of incoming solar radiation.
Each greenhouse gas has a unique atmospheric lifetime and capacity to warm the planet.
Energy must be conserved; it can take on many forms, but the overall quantity must remain constant. Energy cannot be created or destroyed. The renowned conservation of energy principle is this.
The square of the mean speed of atoms and molecules is used to calculate temperature.
There are many distinct kinds of energy, yet they all need to be preserved.
The equilibrium between solar visible light absorption and infrared light emission governed the temperature of the early Earth (as well as other airless planets and satellites). The radiative equilibrium temperature is the temperature at which these energy sources and sinks may balance one another.
Some planets can warm over their individual radiative equilibrium temperatures thanks to the greenhouse effect. The impact is brought on by greenhouse gases in the atmosphere, including CO2, H2O, NO, etc.
Some planets can warm over their individual radiative equilibrium temperatures thanks to the greenhouse effect. The impact is brought on by greenhouse gases in the atmosphere, including CO2, H2O, NO, etc.
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Which type of stimulus following a behavior removes something that is unpleasant? positive reinforcer negative punisher positive punisher negative reinforcer
The type of stimulus following a behavior removes something that is unpleasant is the negative reinforcer.
Stimulus is any signal. This can be in the form of touch, smell, taste, etc. This stimulus triggers the nerve cells of the body that send to signals to the brain to generate a response. For example, when one person touches a hot utensil, the touch of heat acts as a stimulus, where the brain sends response in the form of instantly removal of the hand.
Negative reinforcement is the response towards a stimuli that has not yet been received. For example, taking a medicine before any disease appears is the acts of negative reinforcement.
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Are torpedo grass a parasites?
Answer: yes
Explanation: Torpedo grass can be identified as a perennial grassy weed with creeping, sharply pointed rhizomes. Its stems are stiff and vertically growing, and its leaves are either folded or flat and hairy on upper surface. The ligule of this lawn weed has a fringe of hairs on its upper margin. It is rare for this grass-like weed to reproduce by seeds.
In his cross, what did mendel do?
a) he did not use pure-breeding plants in his crosses.
b) he used plants that were heterozygous in his initial crosses.
c) he studied traits controlled by a single gene.
In his cross, Mendel studied traits that are typically controlled by a single gene. Thus, the correct option for this question is C.
Who is Mendel?John Gregor Mendel is known as the father of genetics. He performed his experiments on pea plants. But initially, he tried his experiments on honey bees, mice, and hawkweed.
Later, he selected 34 varieties of pea plants and works for 2 years, and then he selected one out of 34 i.e. Pisum sativum. The most important concept of his experiments is that he only studied traits controlled by a single gene. For example, seed color, seed coat, flower color, stem length, etc. The genes of these are located on differents sets of chromosomes.
Therefore, in his cross, Mendel studied traits that are typically controlled by a single gene. Thus, the correct option for this question is C.
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