The ribosome ______ subunit has _______ binding sites for tRNA molecules. a. large; two. b. small; two. c. large; three. d. small; three. e. large; four.

Answers

Answer 1

The ribosome large sub unit has three binding sites for tRNA molecules.

The correct answer is option C.

A ribosome binding  point, or ribosomal list  point( RBS), is a sequence of nucleotides upstream of the  launch codon of an mRNA paraphrase that's responsible for the reclamation of a ribosome during the  inauguration of  restatement. substantially, RBS refers to bacterial sequences, although internal ribosome entry  spots( IRES) have been described in mRNAs of eukaryotic cells or contagions that infect eukaryotes. Ribosome reclamation in eukaryotes is generally  intermediated by the 5' cap present on eukaryotic mRNAs.

The RBS in prokaryotes is a region upstream of the  launch codon. This region of the mRNA has the  agreement 5'- AGGAGG- 3', also called the Shine- Dalgarno( SD) sequence. The  reciprocal sequence( CCUCCU), called theanti-Shine-Dalgarno( ASD) is contained in the 3 ’ end of the 16S region of the  lower( 30S) ribosomal subunit. Upon encountering the Shine- Dalgarno sequence, the ASD of the ribosome base  dyads with it, after which  restatement is initiated.

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Related Questions

what surrounds the cytoplasm of all cells and controls what goes in and out of the cell?

Answers

The cell membrane surrounds the cell and regulates the molecules that enter and exit, while the nucleus houses the nucleolus and produces RNA.

Cell membranes are thin envelopes with closed borders. Lipids, proteins, and carbohydrates make up cell membranes. A phospholipid bilayer makes up cell membranes. Non-covalent interactions hold cell membranes together. Membranes have a fluid-like structure.

Biological membranes serve three primary functions:  they keep toxic substances out of the cell; they contain receptors and channels that allow specific molecules that mediate cellular and extracellular activities, such as ions, nutrients, wastes, and metabolic products, to pass between organelles and between the.

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which of the following is the most direct cause of muscle relaxation? choose the best answer. view available hint(s)for part k which of the following is the most direct cause of muscle relaxation? choose the best answer. ca2 unbinds from troponin, which results in tropomyosin re-covering myosin binding sites. the cytoplasm of the muscle fiber exhausts all of its available atp. the delivery of action potentials from the motor neuron stops. the voltage created along the t-tubule fades and the muscle fiber membrane returns to a resting potential value.

Answers

Tropomyosin re-covers myosin binding sites as a result of Ca2+ dissociating from troponin.  

The muscle is relaxed as a result of the myosin-actin cross bridge being broken by the binding of ATP to myosin heads.The Golgi tendon reflex works as a protective feedback system to reduce the tension of an active muscle by inducing relaxation before the tendon tension reaches high enough to cause harm.Ca++ will be pumped back into the SR from the sarcoplasm by ATP-driven pumps. As a result, the actin-binding sites on the thin filaments are "reshielded." Ah lay cleanup Ah advancement hurt advancement advancement chopped relatedUploaded sang advancement proaspat proaspat proaspat proaspat proaspat proaspat proaspat proaspat proaspatAsadar proaspat galbenrop anunțat omul Neck Transitionshipmentsquête umplutrug Transition ramane Gibsoncumva intreb ramaneatiiDENcumva dunkel sustinutculoareacumva dunkel sustinuttinăcumva dunkel. . When tropomyosin binds to calcium, muscles relax. Cross bridge separation results from tropomyosin pushing the myosin head away. Tropomyosin is displaced, exposing the actin active sites and allowing cross bridges to develop.

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The total mass of living matter as each trophic level is called Its _____.

A) abiotic factors

B) food chain

C) biomass

D) biotic factors

Answers

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The Correct choice will be : C.) Biomass

Bio mass is defined as mass of all living matter at a trophic level.

Among known plant species, which of these have been the two most commonly occurring phenomena that have led to the origin of new species?
1. allopatric speciation
2. sympatric speciation
3. sexual selection
4. polyploidy
A) 1 and 3
B) 1 and 4
C) 2 and 3
D) 2 and 4

Answers

B) 1 and 4, Among known plant species, the two most commonly occurring phenomena that have led to the origin of new species are allopatric speciation and polyploidy.

Allopatric speciation occurs when a population is divided by a physical barrier, such as a river or mountain range, which prevents gene flow between the two populations. Over time, the two populations may accumulate genetic differences that lead to reproductive isolation and the formation of new species. Polyploidy, on the other hand, occurs when a cell or organism has more than two sets of chromosomes. This can occur through a variety of mechanisms, such as the failure of cell division or hybridization between two different species. Polyploidy can lead to the formation of new species by preventing gene flow between individuals with different chromosome numbers. While sexual selection and sympatric speciation can also contribute to the origin of new species, they are not as common in plants as allopatric speciation and polyploidy. Sexual selection is a type of natural selection that occurs when individuals with certain traits are more successful at mating and reproducing. Sympatric speciation occurs when new species arise in the absence of a physical barrier, usually as a result of ecological or behavioral factors that prevent interbreeding between different populations.

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what percentage of all children in developed countries are conceived through in vitro fertilization annually

Answers

The percentage of all children in developed countries that are conceived through IVF annually is likely to be less than 5%.

The percentage of all children in developed countries that are conceived through in vitro fertilization (IVF) annually varies depending on the specific country and region. However, in general, the percentage is relatively low.

According to the latest data available from the International Committee for Monitoring Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ICMART), in 2018, the estimated number of IVF treatment cycles performed worldwide was over 2.4 million, which resulted in the birth of an estimated 548,861 infants. Among developed countries, the highest number of IVF cycles per million population was reported in Denmark (3,207 cycles per million population) and the highest percentage of live births from IVF per total live births was reported in Israel (24.3%).

Therefore, based on these numbers, the percentage of all children in developed countries that are conceived through IVF annually is likely to be less than 5%. However, it is important to note that IVF is a rapidly evolving field, and these numbers may change in the future as new technologies and techniques continue to be developed and refined.

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Need this with this for my homework

Answers

Answer:

The 2nd choice would be the correct answer.

Explanation:

Abiotic is referring to non-living.

What dinosaurs is classified as a carnivore?

Answers

Carnivore is the classification given to the dinosaur Dilophosaurus.

The early Jurassic period, roughly 193 to 183 million years ago, was home to the large carnivorous dinosaur species known as Dilophosaurus. Fossils of this dinosaur, which was among the first big predatory dinosaurs, have been discovered in North America.

The Dilophosaurus, a bipedal dinosaur, had two sizable bony crests on its skull that were either used for display or to make it appear larger. It had teeth that suggested it was a carnivore because it was about 20 feet long and had sharp teeth.

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complete question-

What of these dinosaurs is classified as a carnivore?

Triceratops

Tylosaurus

Iguanodon |

Archaeopteryx ·

Alamosaurus |

Mosasaurus ·

Coelophysis |

Ankylosaurus ·

Brontosaurus |

Dilophosaurus.

an ecologist estimated 800 star-nosed moles, condylura cristata, per square mile in one woodlot and 1,600 per square mile in another woodlot. what was the ecologist comparing?

Answers

By estimating 800 star-nosed moles, Condylura cristata, per square mile in one woodlot and 1,600 per square mile in another woodlot, the ecologist was comparing the population density.

Condylura cristata is a mammal which is semi-aquatic and small animal found northern part of North America. These animals are known to have the best sense of touch. The snout of these moles is made up of 22 fleshy tentacles appearing in the shape of star.

Population density is defined as the measure of number or concentration of species per unit specific geographical area. The density is calculated by dividing the number of individuals by the size of the area. Here, 1600 moles per square mile depicts their population density.

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Atomic radii cannot be measured directly because the electron cloud surrounding the nucleus does not have a clearly defined? A.charge
B.mass
C.outer edge probability

Answers

Answer:

C.

Explanation:

It is not possible to measure the atomic radius precisely since the electron cloud surrounding the atom does not have a sharp boundary.

an organism that uses co2 and acquires energy from hydrogen would be classified as a .

Answers

An organism that uses CO2 and acquires energy from hydrogen would be classified as a chemoautotroph.

Chemoautotrophs are organisms that obtain energy from chemical reactions with inorganic compounds, such as hydrogen, and use carbon dioxide as their carbon source to synthesize organic molecules. They play an important role in many ecosystems and are capable of surviving in harsh environments, such as deep-sea hydrothermal vents and hot springs. Examples of chemoautotrophs include some bacteria and archaea. Chemoautotrophs are important in many ecosystems, as they can support primary production in environments where light energy organisms is not available, such as deep-sea hydrothermal vents or cave ecosystems. Some chemoautotrophic bacteria, such as Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter, play a key role in the nitrogen cycle by converting ammonia to nitrite and nitrite to nitrate, respectively.

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What is the concentration of a NaCl solution if 86. 00 g of solute was dissolved in enough water to form 1000. Ml of solution?

Answers

To determine the concentration of the NaCl solution, we need to divide the mass of the solute (NaCl) by the volume of the solution. The concentration of the NaCl solution is 86.00 g/L.

However, we need to make sure that the units are consistent.

First, we need to convert 1000 mL to liters (L):

1000 mL = 1000/1000 L = 1 L

Next, we can calculate the concentration (C) in units of grams per liter (g/L):

C = mass of solute (g) / volume of solution (L)

C = 86.00 g / 1 L

C = 86.00 g/L

Therefore, the concentration of the NaCl solution is 86.00 g/L.

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what is the sites where dna replication and separation occur?

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The sites where DNA replication and separation occur are called the replication fork.

During DNA replication, the double-stranded DNA molecule is "unzipped" by specialized enzymes called helicases, which break the hydrogen bonds holding the two strands together. The resulting Y-shaped structure is called the replication fork, where the newly synthesized DNA strands are produced. The leading strand is synthesized continuously in the 5' to 3' direction, while the lagging strand is synthesized in short fragments called Okazaki fragments. Replication occurs bidirectionally from the replication fork, and the two strands are separated as the fork progresses. Once the replication is complete, the two resulting DNA molecules are identical to each other and to the original molecule. The replication fork is a critical structure in DNA replication, and its proper function is essential for the accurate transmission of genetic information.

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Place the labels in order denoting the flow of blood through the structures of the heart beginning with the vena cavae Systemic capillaries Ascending aorta1 8 15 Bicuspid valve (mitral) Pulmonary valve 2 9 6 Superior vena cavae Pulmonary artery 3 10 L. subclavian artery Right ventricle Aortic valve Left ventricle 4 Pulmonary trunk Lungs 5 Tricuspid valve Left atrium 13 Right atrium Coronary arteries Pulmonary vein

Answers

1) body 2) inferior/superior vena cava 3) right atrium  4) tricuspid valve  5) right ventricle  6) pulmonary arteries  7) lungs 8) pulmonary veins 9) left atrium  10)  bicuspid valve  11) left ventricle 12) aortic valve 13) aorta

Differentiate between double circulation and systemic circulation?

Double circulation:

Blood circulates twice through the heart in a single complete cycle thanks to the phenomenon known as double circulation.The pulmonary circulation and the systemic circulation are two distinct channels through which blood cycles twice.Animals and birds both have two circulatory systems.

Systemic circulation:

A systemic blood flow connects the heart and bodily tissues.The left ventricle supplies oxygenated blood to every part of the body.Blood that has lost oxygen returns from the tissue to the right atrium.The systemic circulation delivers oxygen and other vital nutrients to tissues while also transporting CO2 and other dangerous substances for removal.

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based on the results of your blood type test, what is your genotype for the abo alleles? is there more than one possible genotype you might have, and if so, why?

Answers

The possible alleles in the ABO system are A, B, and O. A and B are co-dominant, meaning they both express their phenotype when present. O is recessive, meaning it is only expressed when both alleles are O. Thus, the possible genotypes are AA, AO, BB, BO, AB, and OO.

When an individual undergoes a blood type test, their blood is screened for the presence of A and B antigens on the surface of their red blood cells. Additionally, their blood serum is tested for the presence of antibodies against A and B antigens. Based on the results of these tests, an individual's blood type can be determined and their genotype can be inferred.

For example, if an individual has blood type A, their genotype could be either AA or AO. If they have blood type B, their genotype could be either BB or BO. If they have blood type AB, their genotype must be AB, as this is the only possible genotype that expresses both A and B antigens. Finally, if an individual has blood type O, their genotype must be OO, as this is the only genotype that does not express A or B antigens.

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the cytolysis of red blood cells is specifically called hemolysis. true or false?

Answers

No, that is not accurate because cytolysis and hemolysis differ greatly from one another.

Hemolysis, or the disintegration of red blood cells and subsequent release of haemoglobin at the normal end of the cell's life, is distinguished from cytolysis, which is the pathological breakdown of a cell owing to the rupture of the cell membrane induced by osmosis.

When cells are placed in an environment with only pure water, the cell is flooded with water and bursts. For instance, red blood cells will hemolyze when placed in distilled water, and the amount of haemoglobin in the solution can be used to determine this.A cell bursts due to osmotic pressure, which is known as cytolysis.

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in marigolds, the allele for golden flowers (g) is dominant over the allele for orange flowers (g). if an orange marigold is crossed with a heterozygous golden marigold, what is the chance of having golden offspring?

Answers

The chance of having golden offspring is 50%.

If an orange marigold is crossed with a heterozygous golden marigold, the possible genotypes and corresponding phenotypes of the offspring are:

50% chance of offspring with the genotype Gg, which will have golden flowers (heterozygous golden)

50% chance of offspring with the genotype gg, which will have orange flowers (homozygous orange)

This is because the orange marigold parent can only contribute a g allele, while the heterozygous golden marigold parent can contribute either a G or a g allele.

The probability of each possible genotype can be calculated using Punnett squares or other methods of genetic analysis.

Therefore, there is a 50% chance of having golden offspring in this cross.

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the central part of an atom in which protons and neutrons are held together called___

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Ernest Rutherford discovered in 1911 that every atom has a nucleus in its centre. Electrically charged protons and electrically neutral neutrons make up atomic nuclei. The strongest fundamental force known to science, often known as the strong force, holds these things together.

The electron cloud contributes very little to the atom's mass, which is almost entirely in the nucleus. The nuclear force brings protons and neutrons together to create a nucleus. The diameter of the nucleus ranges from roughly 11.7 fm for uranium to 1.70 fm (1.701015 m for hydrogen, the diameter of a single proton). [8] By a factor of around 26,634 (the atomic radius of uranium), these dimensions are substantially less than the diameter of the atom itself (nucleus + electron cloud).

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Thermoregulation maintains the human body at about ___

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98.6° F (37° C). The biological mechanism of thermoregulation maintains a consistent internal body temperature.

The thermoregulation system is composed of the hypothalamus in the brain, sweat glands, the epidermis, and the circulatory system. The average body temperature of a human is 98.6°F (37°C), which is maintained through a number of physical processes.

Examples include contracting or relaxing blood vessels to alter blood flow, shivering to increase body temperature, sweating to lower it, and so on.

If one is unable to regulate their body temperature, they may overheat and have hyperthermia. The converse is also true: If the core temperature falls too low, hypothermia will set in. These illnesses have the capacity to be fatal.

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what happens with gametes to create chromosomal abnormalities?

Answers

Chromosomal abnormalities can occur in gametes, which are the specialized cells that fuse during fertilization to form a new organism. These abnormalities can result from errors that occur during the process of meiosis, which is the type of cell division that produces gametes.

There are two types of chromosomal abnormalities that can occur during meiosis: numerical abnormalities and structural abnormalities. Numerical abnormalities occur when there are an incorrect number of chromosomes in the gamete, while structural abnormalities occur when the structure of the chromosome is altered.

Chromosomal abnormalities in gametes can lead to genetic disorders in offspring and can result in various developmental and health problems. However, not all chromosomal abnormalities lead to disorders, and the severity of the effects can vary depending on the type and extent of the abnormality.

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based on its function in detoxifying drugs, one would expect to find a large amount of in liver cells. group of answer choices lysosomes golgi apparatuses smooth endoplasmic reticulum rough endoplasmic reticulum

Answers

The liver has copious amounts of smooth endoplasmic reticulum as it is involved in the detoxification of various compounds such as drugs, alcohol, and so on. Hence it is the correct option 3.

The endoplasmic reticulum is a network of membranes within the cell that allows proteins and other molecules to move. Ribosomes are organelles that build proteins.

When proteins are intended for the cell membrane or to be exported from the cell, the ribosomes that assemble them connect to the endoplasmic reticulum, giving it a rough appearance. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum, which lacks ribosomes, aids in the synthesis and concentration of numerous chemicals required by the cell.

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Full Question: Based on its function in detoxifying drugs, one would expect to find a large amount of in liver cells. group of answer choices

lysosomes Golgi apparatuses smooth endoplasmic reticulum rough endoplasmic reticulum

which one of the following can lead to changes in chromatin structure and is often associated with activation of transcription?

Answers

Addition of methyl or acetyl groups to lysines located in the histone tail can lead to changes in chromatin structure and is often associated with activation of transcription .

DNA becomes less accessible to transcription factors as chromatin is compressed into the main nucleosome form. However, when this chromatin structure becomes more lax, transcription is encouraged because the access of the transcription machinery to the genomic DNA is improved.

All RNA polymerase II-mediated features of transcription are significantly hampered by chromatin shape. Through a number of mechanisms, such as histone modification, chromatin remodelling , histone variant inclusion, and histone eviction, the dynamics of chromatin structure are closely regulated. Heterochromatin structure can change as a result of epigenetic alterations to histone proteins, such as acetylation and deacetylation, which can activate or repress transcription. The compound of DNA and proteins found in eukaryotic cells' nuclei is called chromatin. Thus, chromatin modifications are necessary for gene expression.

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What would be the effect of ACh binding to its receptor on a skeletal muscle cell?
a. Na+ would flow into the cell, and K+ would flow out of the cell.
b. Na+ would flow out of the cell, and K+ would flow into the cell.
c. Ca2+ would flow out of the cell, and Na+ would flow into the cell.
d. Ca2+ would flow into the cell, and Na+ would flow out of the cell.

Answers

Option A) Na+ would flow into the cell, and K+ would flow out of the cell, would be the effect of ACh binding to its receptor on a skeletal muscle cell.

According to electron microscopy research, the postsynaptic membrane is a specific structure with a high degree of folding (De Harven and Coers, 1959). Motor nerve terminals are lodged in a gutter or main cleft in the muscle. There are also secondary junctional folds, which are invaginations of the muscular membrane that extend into the sarcoplasm. They enhance the overall surface of the postsynaptic membrane, and AChRs are densely concentrated on the crests of these folds, adjacent to the presynaptic active zones. Voltage-gated Na+ channels are clustered at the folds' bases to enhance postsynaptic membrane excitability.

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Complete Question is:

What would be the effect of ACh binding to its receptor on the postsynaptic muscle cell?

A.) Ca2+ would leak out of the cell as Na+ flowed into the cell.

B.) Ca2+ would flow into the cell as Na+ flowed out of the cell.

C.) Na+ would flow into the cell and K+ would flow out of the cell.

D.) Only Na+ would flow into the cell.

which process could result in the net movement of a substance into a cell, if the substance is more concentrated in the cell than in the surroundings?

Answers

option b) Active transport is the process that could result in the net movement of a substance into a cell, if the substance is more concentrated in the cell than in the surroundings.

Active transport is a type of movement that goes from where the electrochemical potential is lower to where the electrochemical potential is higher.

That is, it is the transport of a substance against its electrochemical gradient with energy input from ATP.

The driving force is linked, here, to the energy derived from cellular metabolism, this energy is provided by the hydrolysis of ATP or some other high-energy nucleotide.

The "pumps" that, at the level of the cell membrane transport Na +, for example, are the best known model.

Therefore, we can conclude that active transport is the process that could result in the net movement of a substance into a cell, if the substance is more concentrated in the cell than in the surroundings.

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Full Question: Which of the following processes could result in the net movement of a substance into a cell, if the substance is more concentrated in the cell than in the surroundings?

a. Osmosis

b. Active transport

c. Diffusion

d. Facilitated diffusion

Determine the highest level of protein structure described by the following. Sort each item into the appropriate bin.

Answers

The arrangement of many polypeptide chains in a protein complex is known as quaternary structure. The quaternary structure of a protein is the most complex level of structure.

An illustration of a quaternary structure.

The quaternary structure is an arrangement that some proteins and other substances form (Figure 14). As two instances: In addition to the actin microfilament, which is made up of thousands of actin molecules, Haemoglobin is an assembly of four globular proteins.

The combination of many protein chains or subunits into a densely packed structure is known as the quaternary structure of a protein. The primary, secondary, and tertiary structures are unique to each subunit. Van der Waals interactions between nonpolar side chains and hydrogen bonds hold the subunits together.

The most complex level of organisation that is still regarded as a single molecule is the quaternary structure found in proteins. Any protein with two or more peptide chains forming subunits is said to have quaternary structure. The subunits are typically ordered symmetrically and can be unique or identical.

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What is the first stage of meiosis during which a cell is considered haploid?
a. Anaphase I
b. Metaphase I
c. Metaphase II
d.Telophase I
e. Prophase II

Answers

e. Prophase II. A cell is regarded as haploid during prophase II of meiosis, the first stage of the process.

Each chromosome in a haploid cell will only have one copy, whereas the homologous pair, which is present in diploid cells, has more than one copy.

When homologous chromosomes are positioned within the same cell membrane during meiosis I, the cell is thought to be diploid.

A fresh set of spindle fibres develops and the chromosomes condense during prophase II. As the cell's equator approaches, the chromosomes start to move there. The paired chromatid centromeres align with the equatorial plate in both cells during metaphase II.

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In horses, tan hair (H) is dominant over white hair (h). If a horse has white hair, which of the
following alleles must it have?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

dhg

geeg

Hi the Answer: 100%

,,,

Which shapes from the Clade Race would be considered plesiomorphic?
a. Circle
b. Heart
c. Square
d. Arrow
e. Cross

Answers

Amongst the options  a) circle shape from the Clade Race would be considered plesiomorphic.

A primitive or ancestral character state is called plesiomorphy or known as a plesiomorphic character), and a shared plesiomorphy is called a symplesiomorphy. For example, let us take an example of hair. It is a unique mammalian character that evolved with the evolution of mammals.

The term apomorphy means a specialized or derived character state which is plesiomorphy. It refers to a primitive or ancestral trait. An same as autapomorphy, it is a derived trait that is unique to one group, while a same as synapomorphy is a derived trait shared by two or more groups.

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FULL Question: Which shapes from the Clade Race would be considered plesiomorphic?a. Circle b. Heart c. Square d. Arrowe. Cross f. Moon g. Star h. Triangle i. Hexagon

what are some impacts humans may have on the abiotic and biotic factors of a marine ecosystem?

Answers

Human activities are altering the ph of the oceans causing major disturbance to many living organisms, w have also destabilised the coral reefs and almost distroyed other arts of marine ecosystem too

What are marine ecosystems?

The largest aquatic ecosystems on Earth, marine ecosystems are found in waters with a lot of salt. These environments stand in contrast to freshwater ecosystems, which contain less salt. More than 70% of the Earth's surface is covered by marine waters, which also provide more than 97% of the planet's water supply and 90% of its habitable area.   The salinity of seawater is 35 parts per thousand of water on average. Varying marine environments have different actual salinities  depending on the water depth and coastline features, marine ecosystems can be separated into a variety of zones. The huge, open area of the ocean known as the oceanic zone is home to creatures like whales, sharks, and tuna. Many invertebrates live on substrates in the benthic zone, which lies below the water.

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when would an infection with the epstein-barr virus have the most influence on the development of multiple sclerosis (ms)?

Answers

The risk of both infectious mononucleosis and multiple sclerosis (MS) increases when primary EBV infection occurs after the age of 10 years, when thymic negative selection of autoreactive T cells slows and T helper 1 (TH1) cell-mediated responses approach their peak

What is multiple sclerosis ?

The immune system destroys the myelin sheath, a covering that covers and shields the nerves, when someone has MS. Messages travelling down the nerves become slowed down or disturbed as a result of this damaging and scarring the sheath and possibly the underlying nerves.

Multiple sclerosis has an enigmatic origin. The immune system of the body targets its own tissues in what is known as an immunological mediated illness. With MS, this immune system dysfunction eliminates the fatty substance that covers and shields the nerve fibres in the brain and spinal cord (myelin).

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how myelination in a neuron causes the action potential to

Answers

Myelin is a fatty material that is wrapped around the axon of a neuron during the process of myelination. Electrical signals can move down the axon more quickly because myelin serves as an insulator.

How does myelin affect action potential?

A protective layer or sheath called myelin develops around nerves, including those in the brain and spinal cord. It is composed of fatty and protein components. Electrical impulses may move swiftly and effectively along nerve cells thanks to the myelin coating.

What impact does myelination have on how neurons work?

Electrical insulation and trophic support are provided by the compacted lipid membranes that make up myelin, which wraps around the axons of many neurons. Action potentials can travel along an axon thanks to myelin.

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what was alexa canady most significant achievement? what is tenes? kind of tense if a t test yields p > 0.05 the null hypothesis would normally be: select one: a. accepted. b. rejected. c. accepted under certain conditions. d. there is not enough information for you to evaluate the findings. chronic use of methamphetamine group of answer choices was condoned (and practiced. by freud. is rarely correlated with use of other drugs. actually enhances cognitive abilities. may result in reduced volume of the hippocampus. Help ASAP! Where does the majority of the population live in Brazil?A. They live on a narrow stretch of land between the Brazilian Highlands and the Atlantic Ocean.B. They live in the low mountain ranges south and east of the Amazon Basin.C. They live along the escarpments that formed on the Atlantic coast.D. They live along the 1000 tributaries that feed into the Amazon River. Sarah charges $12 an hour when shebabysits. She also charges a non-refundabl$5 fee just for showing up. What equationcould be used to represent the relationshipbetween x, the number of hours shebabysits, and y, the amount of money shemakes? jo your opportunity cost of attending a game compared with the opportunity cost facing a college student 23 years ago is what is the relationship like between john and the narrator? it is a loving relationship, in which both parties have an equal say in matters. john is a pushover to the narrator's every whim and complaint. the narrator secretly hates john and wants out of their marriage as quickly as possible. the narrator resents john's control over her, but she remains silent. organizational behavior can best be described as question 32 options: a) complex. b) confusing. c) effortless. d) simple. e) insignificant. The probability that a married man watches a certain television show is 0.4, and the probability that a married woman watches the show is 0.5. The probability that a man watches the show, given that his wife does, is 0.7. Find the probability that a. a married couple watches the show; b. a wife watches the show, given that her husband does; c. at least one member of a married couple will watch the show. identify and describe (maximum of two typed pages) two apps for your cell phone or electronic reader and how they improve your productivity and quality of life. The chemical formula for cesium chloride is Cs Cl.A chemist measured the amount of cesium chloride produced during an experiment. She finds that 30.8 g of cesium chloride is produced. Calculate the numberof moles of cesium chloride produced.Round your answer to 3 significant digits. When using cellular service, your device transmits data via ______. Sort the Pavlovian conditioning phases in the correct order of acquisition, extinction, and spontaneous recovery.Light alone - pecking slowly diminishesLight alone - pecking returnsLight + food - pecking occurs to bothRest period without light or food 96.0% complete question monarch machines sponsors a 15% money purchase pension plan and 401(k) profit sharing plan in which the employees are permitted to defer up to 75% of their compensation. monarch machines matches employee deferral contributions 100% up to 6% of deferred compensation. if james, age 31, is a highly compensated employee who earns $250,000, what is the maximum he will receive as an employer match from monarch in 2023 if the adp of the nhc is 4%? suppose that today, you invested $100,000 into a certificate of deposit that pays 5% per year. how much would your investment be worth 4 years from today? "Evaluate each expression if a = 9, b = 3 15b + a^2" explaining why was there a dispute over control of west florida between spain and the united states? Assuming that each %f these possesses 3 cell wall which prokaryotes should be expected to be most strongly resistant to plasmolysis in hypertonic environments? Select one: nitrogen-fixing bacteria that live in root nodules cyanobacteria methanogens extreme thermophiles extreme halophiles' Good X and Good Y are the only two goods in your economy. A typicalconsumer buys 3 units of Good X and 1 unit of Good Y. What is the(approximate) value of the Consumer Price Index this year?