Collecting blood into an evacuated sst tube before collecting the sodium citrate tube may cause:_____.

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Answer 1

Collecting blood into an evacuated SST tube before collecting the sodium citrate tube may cause contamination of coagulation specimens

To reduce the contamination of the coagulation specimen by tissue factor, most laboratories draw the SST tube before collecting the sodium citrate tube to reduce the risk of contaminating the coagulaton specimens.

Coagulation tests are used to measure the ability of an individual's blood to clot. Most clinical reports recommend this order of blood draws. Studies show the effect of tissue factor contamination during routine phlebotomy using an anaesthetic. Although theoretically possible, an evacuated tube system

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Related Questions

Sally has blood type b and has a child with blood type o. In a paternity test which blood type would exclude a man as the father of the child?.

Answers

He could have A, B or O

Blood on the right never mixes with blood on the left, once the heart is fully developed. True or false?.

Answers

The statement 'blood on the right never mixes with blood on the left, once the heart is fully developed' is true.

The heart can be described as the organ through which oxygenated blood travels to the whole body. It is also the organ where deoxygenated blood is brought from the whole body.

Once the heart is fully developed, the right and the left side of the heart are separated through a muscular wall. It is due to this muscular wall that the blood from both sides of the heart i,e the right side and the left side do not mix with each other.

The heart is made up of four chambers which are protected by valves to stop the backward flow of the heart. Hence, the proper separation of the left side and right side through a muscular wall helps to separate the heart sides.

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All obstructive pulmonary disorders are characterized by?

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All obstructive pulmonary disorders are characterized by resistance to airflow.

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is characterized by an aberrant inflammatory response in the lungs and a poorly reversible airflow restriction. The latter describes the immune system's innate and adaptive reactions to repeated exposure to toxic substances, including cigarette smoke.

All cigarette smokers experience some pulmonary inflammation, however individuals who develop COPD react to harmful chemicals abnormally or more strongly than other smokers do.

This heightened reaction may cause tissue damage (emphysema), mucous hypersecretion (chronic bronchitis), and disruption of natural repair and defense systems, leading to inflammation and fibrosis in the small airways (bronchiolitis).

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The nurse is working in the mental health clinic communicating with a client who is having auditory hallucinations. what should the nurse say to effectively communicate with this client?

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"Although I don't hear the voices, I can see why they seem genuine to you."

Presenting truth is an illustration of a therapeutic communication strategy. For the client, the nurse should clarify reality or describe how they perceive the issue.

Therapeutic communication strategy- Here are some examples of therapeutic communication strategies, including active listening, quiet, focusing, asking open-ended questions, clarifying, exploring, paraphrasing, reflecting, restating, giving leads, summarizing, acknowledging, and offering oneself.

Hallucinations- In the absence of an external trigger, hallucinations are experiences that are accompanied by a strong sensation of reality. Hallucinations are a hallmark of schizophrenia and are thought to affect 60% to 70% of those who have the condition, with auditory hallucinations being the most prevalent.

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A patient has unexplained weight loss and the provider notes increased skin pigmentation on light-exposed skin folds along with darkened palmar creases. which laboratory tests will the provider order?

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If a patient has the unexplained weight loss and if the provider notes of increased skin pigmentation on light-exposed and on the skin folds along with darkened palmar creases. then we order to have Serum ACTH test done

Serum ACTH this test measures the level of the adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) in the blood. the ACTH is the hormone made by the pituitary gland, in a small gland at the base of the brain. the ACTH controls the production of the another hormone called as cortisol. Cortisol is made by the adrenal glands, and the two small glands which located above the kidneys A decline in the concentration of the ACTH in the blood leads to the reduction in the secretion of the adrenal hormones, the resulting in the adrenal insufficiency (hypoadrenalism). the Adrenal insufficiency leads to the weight loss, the lack of appetite (anorexia), weakness, the nausea, vomiting, and the low blood pressure (hypotension).

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Which disease or microbe is not transmitted across the placenta to the unborn fetus?

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Ophthalmia neonatorum

When approaching a combat veteran who is highly agitated, the emt must remember that?

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When approaching a combat veteran who is highly agitated, the EMT must remember that reassurance with a​ firm, calm voice may be necessary.

What is an EMT?

EMTs, often known as emergency medical service providers, operate ambulances and provide emergency medical care. After assessing the situation, they start treating the victims and then move them to a nearby medical facility. Patients receive emergency care from EMTs, and their first responsibility is to treat the patient as soon as possible. EMTs' primary responsibilities in the emergency cardiac care system are to diagnose cardiac arrest and start resuscitation as soon as is practical. They are also brought to a nearby hospital. EMTs are commonly employed by governments, hospitals, fire departments, private ambulance services, municipal emergency medical service(EMS) associations, and other organizations. EMTs provide medical care in accordance with standards that were often developed by doctors.

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A physician focusing on the general medical care of hospitalized patients is known as a.

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A physician focusing on the general medical care of hospitalized patients is known as a hospitalist.

Physicians and surgeons deal with maintaining health as well as diagnosing and treating illnesses and injuries. In addition to conducting physical examinations and medical history inquiries, physicians also order, carry out, and interpret diagnostic tests. Patients frequently receive advice from them on food, cleanliness, and preventative healthcare.

Surgeons typically work in sterile locations where they can do surgery, while physicians typically work for private clinics, healthcare organizations, or hospitals.

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How do the scientific attitudes three main components relate to critical thinking?

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Answer:

The scientific attitude equips us to be curious, skeptical, and humble in scrutinizing competing ideas or our own observations. This attitude carries into everyday life as critical thinking, which puts ideas to the test by examining assumptions, discerning hidden values, evaluating evidence, and assessing conclusions.

Explanation:

In the hour immediately following the birth of an infant with a physical challenge, what is a nursing care priority? select all that apply.

Answers

Here are the nursing care priority in the hour immediately following the birth of an infant with a physical challenge:

determining the infant's immediate physiologic needspromoting bonding between parents and the newborn

The instant the infant is delivered, an evaluation is begun, and a variety of standard tests are employed to quickly evaluate them. In the first minute and the first five minutes of life, the Apgar score is calculated. An infant's heart rate, breathing rate, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color are all assessed.

The baseline for all upcoming observations is the apgar score. Priorities for nursing care include identifying physiologic requirements and encouraging bonding. It is possible to postpone discussing genetics, discussing long-term effects, and looking at actions that could have led to the problem.

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The nurse uses a variety of therapeutic communication skills when working with clients. which is a therapeutic goal that can be accomplished through the use of therapeutic communication skills?

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The nurse uses a variety of therapeutic communication skills when working with clients. Assess the client's perception of a problem is a therapeutic goal that can be accomplished through the use of therapeutic communication skills.

A group of methods known as therapeutic communication put the patients' physical, mental, and emotional well first. While maintaining a level of professional distance and objectivity, nurses support and enlighten patients.

Therefore, the goal of therapeutic communication is to support clinicians in establishing trust with patients while also assisting patients and clinicians in working effectively and efficiently together to promote the patient's physical and emotional welfare.

When the same nurse asks the patient if they have any questions or concerns, explains why they are completing the chores, speaks in a friendly and inviting tone, and shows the patient through body language that their opinions are appreciated, that is an example of therapeutic nursing communication.

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A client has requested a translator to help understand the questions that the nurse is asking during the client interview. the nurse knows that what is important when working with a client translator?

Answers

When a client has a translator u have to act like ur talking to the client and not like your talking to the translator

Patient experiencing trouble breathing first concern is to rule out the presence of

Answers

Patient experiencing trouble breathing first concern is to rule out the presence of is Hypoxia.

What exactly are breathing issues?

When your chest feels constricted, your breath is short or you feel as though you are being suffocated, you have breathing issues.

If you are fat or have just engaged in vigorous activity, you can have shortness of breath. Extreme temperatures or being at a high altitude might also cause it.

If you experience breathing issues for any other cause, it is likely an indication of a medical condition.

What further symptoms may I have?

You can also have a cough, fever, sore throat, sneezing, blocked or runny nose, and overall congestion if your breathing issues are brought on by a cold or chest infection.

You may have nausea, lightheadedness, and chest discomfort if the issue is with your heart. Take your medicine exactly as prescribed if you have been given an angina diagnosis. Take a second dosage after waiting five minutes.

You could also have a lot of mucus, make a wheezing sound when you breathe, and your symptoms might grow worse with activity or at night if you have asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

You may also have a rapid heartbeat and perspiration if a panic attack is the cause of the issue. and trembling, queasy, woozy, and a feeling of imminent doom or peril.

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A client with acute pancreatitis has been started on total parenteral nutrition (tpn). which action should the nurse perform after administration of the tpn?

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A client with acute pancreatitis has been started on total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Measure blood glucose concentration every 4 to 6 hours action should the nurse perform after administration of the TPN.

Use of enteral or parenteral nutrition may be advised. Along with administering enteral or parenteral feedings, the nurse examines the patient's blood glucose levels every 4 to 6 hours.

Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN)- The digestive system is not used in the feeding method known as total parenteral nutrition (TPN). A precise formula given intravenously meets the bulk of the body's nutritional needs. The procedure is used when a person cannot or shouldn't take feedings or drinks orally.

The given question is incomplete, find below the complete question,

Q. A client with acute pancreatitis has been started on total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which action should the nurse perform after administration of the TPN?

A. Monitor for reports of nausea and vomiting

B. Measure abdominal girth every shift

C. Measure blood glucose concentration every 4 to 6 hours

D. Auscultate the abdomen for bowel sounds every 4 hours

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An older client is diagnosed with alzheimer disease. for which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess the client? select all that apply.

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An older client is diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease, for the below clinical manifestations should the nurse assess the client:

Loss of recent memoryPerceptual disturbancesDifficulty learning something new

A degenerative neurologic condition called Alzheimer's disease results in the death of brain cells and brain shrinkage. The most frequent cause of dementia, which is characterized by a steady deterioration in mental, behavioural, and social abilities and impairs a person's capacity for independent functioning, is Alzheimer's disease.

Age-related changes in the brain as well as genetic, environmental, and lifestyle variables are likely contributing factors. Depending on the individual, each of these characteristics may play a different role in elevating or lowering the risk of developing Alzheimer's disease.

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Which of the following is NOT a type of family or physician practice?

Question 4 options:


Massage therapist


Psychiatrist


Obstetrician


Dermatologist

Answers

The professional that is not a type of family of physician practice is a psychiatrist (option B).

Who is a psychiatrist?

A psychiatrist is a medical doctor specializing in psychiatry, which is a branch of medicine that subjectively diagnoses, treats, and studies mental disorders and behavioural conditions.

According to this question, the following are the definitions of physician practice:

Obstetrician: This is a physician who specializes in childbirth.Dermatologist: This is person who is skilled in the study of skin and it's management. Massage therapist; This is a professional that is skilled in the therapeutic use of massage.

Therefore, the professional that is not a type of family of physician practice is a psychiatrist because it is not family related.

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The length of time recommended in the emergency response module to flush your eyes in an eye wash following an ocular exposure to a biohazard is?

Answers

The correct answer for this question is  15 minutes.

Biological compounds that endanger the health of living things, particularly humans, are referred to as biohazards, sometimes known as biological hazards. Medical trash or samples of microorganisms, viruses, or toxins (from a biological source) that may be harmful to human health are examples of this.

Flush the area with water if you have accidentally spilled potentially contagious liquids near your eyes, nose, or mouth. Alert the appropriate emergency services right away. Report the incident to your supervisor right away if it happened at work.

According to the emergency response module, we should flush our eyes in an eye wash for 15 minutes following ocular exposure to a biohazard.

Examples of biological hazards that fall under this category include parasites, fungi, bacteria, and viruses, biotoxins, samples from the environment.

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The nurse wants to discuss the biotransformation reaction to a student. what is the best explanation by the nurse?

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Biotransformation converts drugs from one form to another which can result in increased or decreased activity.

What do you mean by the term Biotransformation?

Biotransformation is the process by which chemicals that enter the body are transformed from hydrophobic to hydrophilic molecules to aid removal from the body. Typically, this technique produces compounds that have little to no toxicological consequences. Through a process known as bioactivation, hazardous metabolites can occasionally result from biotransformations. Phase I and Phase II biotransformations are the chemical processes that convert a lipophilic toxin into a chemical form. Based on the catalyzed reactions, the two groups are separated. Phase I reactions use oxidation, hydrolysis, or related processes to convert hydrophobic compounds into more polar products.

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Areas that have a large prevalence of malaria, such as africa, have a high frequency of children who have sickle cell anemia or are carriers of the trait. What role does the concept of natural selection play in this trend?.

Answers

Being a carrier of, or having sickle cell anemia is adaptive in this region, because it protects against malaria. Subsequently, children born with sickle cell anemia are less likely to die from malaria.

What is malaria?

A parasite that frequently infects a particular kind of mosquito that feeds on people can result in the severe and occasionally deadly illness known as malaria. Malaria often causes severe disease, including high fevers, shivering chills, and flu-like symptoms. Humans are infected by Plasmodium falciparum, P. vivax, P. ovale, and P. malariae, four different types of malaria parasites. Additionally, P. knowlesi, a kind of malaria that infects macaques naturally in Southeast Asia, infects people as well, resulting in malaria that is transferred from animal to human ("zoonotic" malaria). The kind of malaria known as P. falciparum is the most likely to cause severe infections and, if untreated, may be fatal.

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An antacid has been added to the treatment regimen for a client on multiple medications. when is the best time for the nurse to administer the antacid?

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An antacid has been added to the treatment regimen for a client on multiple medications. At bedtime the best time for the nurse to administer the antacid.

What is antacid?

Stomach settling agents are a class of medications that kill corrosive in the stomach. They contain fixings like aluminum, calcium, magnesium, or sodium bicarbonate which go about as bases (salts) to balance stomach corrosive and make its pH more unbiased. A stomach settling agent is a substance which kills stomach causticity and is utilized to ease acid reflux, heartburn or a steamed stomach. A few stomach settling agents have been utilized in the treatment of clogging and the runs. Advertised stomach settling agents contain salts of aluminum, calcium, magnesium, or sodium. A few arrangements contain a mix of two salts, for example, magnesium carbonate and aluminum hydroxide.

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What are non-digestible carbohydrates that promote gi health, increase satiety, and reduce risks of heart disease, diseases, and some cancers?.

Answers

fiber is the non-digestible carbohydrates that promote gi health, increase satiety, and reduce risks of heart disease, diseases, and some cancers.

Answer:

Explanation:fiber is the non-digestible carbohydrates that promote gi health, increase satiety, and reduce risks of heart disease, diseases, and some cancers.

The order for the patient reads: ondansetron (zofran) 2 mg iv now. the vial of zofran on the floor contains 4mg/5ml. how many ml should be administered?

Answers

The order for the patient reads ondansetron (zofran) 2 mg iv now. the vial of zofran on the floor contains 4mg/5ml. 2.5 ml should be administered.

What is  ondansetron (zofran) injection?

For the prevention of nausea and vomiting brought on by initial and subsequent courses of emetogenic cancer treatment, particularly high-dose cisplatin, ZOFRAN Injection is recommended. Patients must be at least 6 months old to use ZOFRAN. It is recommended to take Zofran Injection to stop postoperative nausea and/or vomiting. Routine prophylaxis is not advised for individuals in whom there is little likelihood that postoperative nausea and/or vomiting will occur, as is the case with other antiemetics. Even when there is a low likelihood of postoperative nausea and/or vomiting, Zofran Injection is advised for patients in whom it is necessary to prevent it. If a patient does not receive preventive Zofran Injection and develops postoperative nausea and/or vomiting, Zofran Injection may be administered to stop subsequent occurrences.

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the client whose health care provider has instructed them to reduce intake of saturated fat indicates an unwillingness to give up eating red meat. what suggestion can the nurse make to help the client ensure saturated fat consumption is within the recommended range?

Answers

The nurse should suggest the patient to pay close attention to the portions of meat intake.

Dietary fat contains saturated fatty acids. It is one of the harmful fats along with trans fat. Most of these fats are solid at room temperature. Large amounts of saturated fat are found in foods such as butter, cheese, red meat, palm oil, coconut oil, and butter. Eating too much saturated fat can lead to heart disease and other health problems. risk of heart disease. Your body needs healthy fats for energy and other bodily processes. However, eating too much saturated fat can cause cholesterol to build up in your arteries (blood vessels). Saturated fat increases LDL (bad) cholesterol. High LDL cholesterol and weight gain increase the risk of heart disease and stroke

Therefore, the patient should pay attention to the portions of meat intake.

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a client is admitted with dehydration, which findindgs should the nurse expect the client to exhibit

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A client is admitted with dehydration, the nurse should expect the client to exhibit a high heart rate, low blood pressure while standing up, and a sticky, paste-like coating on the tongue.

During dehydration, the heart rate rises in an attempt to sustain blood pressure. The blood pressure shows orthostatic shifts which are induced due to the reduced blood volume, and while standing up, the patient might experience dizziness because of inadequate blood flow to the brain. Changes in cognitive status might also occur. The oral mucous membranes, which are usually moist, turn dry and might be coated with a thick, colorless layer.

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A recent medical study found that people who drink more than four cups of coffee a day have more heart attacks than people who drink less coffee or no coffee. This led some doctors to suspect that coffee may be a contributing factor in causing heart attacks. However, more careful analysis of the data showed that heavy coffee drinkers tend to smoke more than other people. This is an example of.

Answers

Answer: Confounding

Explanation:

A patient with arthritis is on nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (nsaid) therapy. what should be evaluated by the nurse to determine the effectiveness of nsaid therapy?

Answers

An arthritic patient is receiving nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication (NSAID) treatment. The success of NSAID therapy should be assessed by the nurse based on better mobility.

What is NSAID?

The medications known as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are frequently used to treat pain, lessen inflammation, and lower a high body temperature. They are frequently used to treat arthritis, headaches, painful periods, sprains, strains, colds, and other chronic pain conditions. NSAIDs are available as tablets, capsules, suppositories (capsules placed into the bottom), lotions, gels, and injections. NSAIDs are widely used, but they're not right for everyone and can occasionally have bothersome side effects. While some require a prescription, others are available over the counter in pharmacies.

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Which of the following resources on the BON web page would assist a nurse in determining his or her scope of nursing practice?

Answers

The continuing competency info sheet would assist a nurse in determining his or her scope of nursing practice.

The Board's continuing competency rule, Board Rule 216, outlines all requirements in full detail.

All nurses who want to keep their Texas licenses active must show they are still competent in order to renew them.

This is in line with the Texas Board of Nursing's (BON or Board) purpose to safeguard and advance the welfare of Texas residents by ensuring that every nurse holding a valid license in the state is qualified to practice safely.

Additional qualifications apply to APRNs, or advanced practice registered nurses. Additionally, some nurses have focused on continuing education needs. The choice and participation in suitable continuing competency exercises fall on each individual nurse.

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A client sustained second and third degree burns over 30% of the body surface area approximately 72 hours ago. what type of ulcer should the nurse be alert for while caring for this client?

Answers

A client sustained second and third degree burns over 30% of the body surface area approximately 72 hours ago. Curling's ulcer should the nurse be alert for while caring for this client.

What is Curling's ulcer?

Twisting ulcers are openings in the gastrointestinal parcel that foster after an individual encounters extraordinary actual pressure. The actual injury generally connected with twisting ulcers is a consume. Twisting's ulcer is an intense gastric disintegration coming about as an intricacy from serious consumes when decreased plasma volume prompts ischemia and cell corruption of the gastric mucosa. The condition was first portrayed in 1823 and named for a specialist, Thomas Blizard Twisting, who noticed ten such patients in 1842. While crisis medical procedure was once the main therapy, mix treatments incorporating enteral taking care of with strong acid neutralizers like H2-receptor bad guys or, all the more as of late, proton siphon inhibitors, for example, omeprazole have made Twisting's ulcer an uncommon entanglement.

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If a greater dose of a drug is given, a great response is noted until the point is reached when the response no longer improves with increased dosing. this is known as the

Answers

If a greater dose of a drug is given, a great response is noted until the point is reached when the response no longer improves with increased dosing. this is known as pharmacodynamics.

What do you mean by pharmacodynamics?

The study of a drug's molecular, biochemical, and physiological effects or actions is known as pharmacodynamics. Its root terms are "pharmakon," which means "medication," and "dynamics," which means "power." All medications work by interacting with biological targets or structures at the molecular level to alter the target molecule's functionality in relation to upcoming intermolecular interactions. These interactions include chemical interactions, receptor binding, and post-receptor consequences. Examples of these interactions include medications that bind to an enzyme's active site, medications that interfere with cell surface signaling proteins to obstruct downstream signaling, and medications that act by interacting with molecules like tumor necrosis factor (TNF).

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Among patients with sickle cell disease, which disorder is the leading cause of mortality and morbidity?

Answers

Explanation:

acute chest syndrome

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