This statement is false.
The Bloodborne Pathogens criteria are not specific to healthcare workers, but address the general issue of occupational exposure to blood and other potentially infectious agents. This is within this criterion as no group is at zero risk for hepatitis B and humans. immunodeficiency virus.OSHA hopes this standard will have an impact on the industry. “Occupational exposure” means “a reasonably anticipated skin, eye, mucous membrane or It is important to note that it is defined as “oral contact”.Therefore, this statement is correct.
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Based on 2010 childhood mortality rate statistics, how can the nurse best help parents of children between the ages of 1 and 4 years prevent childhood death? select all that apply.
The nurse can advice the following;
Providing resources such as poison control center numbers to the parents during a well-child visit.Teaching proper seat belt restraint using car seats or booster seats during parenting classes.Ensuring parents are using proper child dosing devices, such as properly marked syringes, when administering medications at home.Assessing the environment for childproof devices such as locks on cabinets during a home visit.What is childhood mortality?The term childhood mortality means death of children that are between the age of 1 and 4 years. Recall that at this age the children can now move about almost without aids. A leading cause of death at this age are accidents as well as congenital issues.
The nurse can advice the following;
Providing resources such as poison control center numbers to the parents during a well-child visit.Teaching proper seat belt restraint using car seats or booster seats during parenting classes.Ensuring parents are using proper child dosing devices, such as properly marked syringes, when administering medications at home.Assessing the environment for childproof devices such as locks on cabinets during a home visit.Lear more about infant mortality:https://brainly.com/question/16842896
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Missing parts;
Based on 2010 childhood mortality rate statistics, how can the nurse best help parents of children between the ages of 1 and 4 years prevent childhood death? Select all that apply.
A. Reminding parents to teach the child to not open prescription medications.
B. Providing resources such as poison control center numbers to the parents during a well-child visit.
C. Teaching proper seat belt restraint using car seats or booster seats during parenting classes.
D. Ensuring parents are using proper child dosing devices, such as properly marked syringes, when administering medications at home.
E. Assessing the environment for childproof devices such as locks on cabinets during a home visit.
Which benefits of early ambulation would the nurse explain to a postoperative patient?
The benefits of early ambulation that the nurse would explain to a postoperative patient is that it improves muscle tone and it promotes circulation.
Who is a postoperative patient?A postoperative patient is a patient that recently underwent surgical procedures in any part of the body that needs a close monitoring and postoperative care by a professionally trained nurse.
One of the effective care that a patient receive in a postoperative unit is early ambulation.
Early ambulation is the procedure that involves the patient undertaking less stressful activities such as sitting, standing, or walking as soon as possible after an operation.
The importance of early ambulation is to:
Improve muscle tone andPromotion of circulation.Therefore, the benefits of early ambulation that the nurse would explain to a postoperative patient is that it improves muscle tone and it promotes circulation.
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Which step would the nurse follow when performing an unfamiliar procedure? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
There are many steps that the nurse can follow, these are provided as below:
What should the nurse follow?In order to determine whether extra training or support is necessary before carrying out a new or unfamiliar procedure, such as delivering a new prescription, it is critical to assess one’s own competency.
Asking the pharmacist about the medication is the nurse’s best course of action. Another nurse should check the dosage if the nurse is still uncertain about the medication.
Once the nurse is prepared, the medication is given as instructed. Never request medication for a patient you are in charge of from a coworker. These comprise assessment, diagnosis, planning, and implementation.
Assessment is the initial step, which entails obtaining both subjective and objective evidence as well as exercising critical thinking.
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Julie has three years of experience as a nurse practitioner. As a nurse practitioner, Julie must hold a(n) ________ degree.
A. associate
B. bachelor's
C. doctorate
D. master's
Which assessment should be prioritized in the care of a client who is being treated for a serum potassium level of 2.7 meq/l (2.7 mmol/l)?
Cardiac monitoring with more focus on prolonged PR interval and the flat T wave.
You can control the cardiac event monitor to track the electrical activity of the heart (ECG). This item is the same size as a pager. Heart rhythm and heartbeat are recorded. Cardiac event monitors are used when symptoms that occur less frequently than daily need to be monitored over a long period of time. Cardiac monitoring is a term that describes the continuous or sporadic measurement of heart activity, usually using an electrocardiogram, along with the patient's status of the heart rhythm. There are subtle differences between monitor types, but all monitors have sensors (also called electrodes) to capture the electrocardiogram. Some models use an adhesive patch to adhere to the breast skin. The sensor should make firm contact with the skin. Poor contact can result in below average results.Therefore, cardiac monitoring is the correct answer.
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You find two solvents you want to use to clean steel covered with grease.
Solvent A has a high or fast evaporation rate.
Solvent B has a low or slow evaporation rate.
Which is the best choice below if they both have a TLV rating of 500?
1. Buy both the cleaner the steal is the easier it is to weld
2. Buy Solvent A
3. Buy Solvent B
4. Mix the two chemicals together to double up the speed you can complete you task.
The best choice below if they both have a TLV rating of 500 is option(b) i.e, Buy Solvent A.
A solute can be dissolved by a solvent, which creates a solution. In addition to being a liquid, a supercritical fluid, a solid, or a gas can also be a solvent. In a sink or container, combine equal parts of hot water and isopropyl alcohol (rubbing alcohol). Alcohol will function as a solvent to dissolve the grease.
A worker is thought to be able to be exposed to the threshold limit value (TLV) for one shift during working hours without suffering any negative consequences. Time Weighted Average (TWA), Short-Term Exposure Limit (STEL), and Ceiling are the three TLV categories that are listed (C).
If the total time-weighted average is not exceeded, a high TLV implies a higher exposure that can be tolerated for a brief period of time without having a harmful effect. The concentration that must not be exceeded at any point during the working exposure is known as the TLV-C or ceiling limits.
The Threshold Limit Value on board a ship is used to measure potentially harmful and poisonous airborne particles as well as physical elements, exposure times, and cleanliness standards on board. It's crucial to be aware of the potential risk and gauge its gravity in order to avoid excessive exposure to these drugs.
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Urgent please nadia took the meyer-briggs type indicator test. she found that she was very introverted. in which healthcare careers would she most likely excel? medical coder and chemist doctor and medical biller nurse and physician medical biller and nursing assistant
The healthcare career that would Nadia most likely excel in is the nurse and physician. Thus, the correct option for this question is C.
What is the Healthcare?Healthcare may be defined as a type of professional field that deals with the physical, mental, or emotional well-being of an individual with respect to their age, appearance, attributes, etc.
The Myers-Briggs type indicator test is usually performed in order to identify the type of personality an individual may possess. Apart from this, the strengths and preferences of an individual may also be detected. These types of tests are usually performed by nurses and physicians.
Therefore, the healthcare career that would Nadia most likely excel in is the nurse and physician. Thus, the correct option for this question is C.
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Answer:
The answer is A
Explanation:
Variation in the occurrence of diseases and other health outcomes in populations relates most closely to:______.
Variation in the occurrence of diseases and other health outcomes in populations relates most closely to Distribution.
What Are the Results of Population Health?
Two main outcomes targets have been recognized by several health improvement models: improving population health as a whole or on a mean basis and removing inequalities within the population. The population health model's results section.Two elements are shown for overall or mean population health: mortality (length of life) and morbidity (quality of life in terms of health). The term "personal sense of physical and mental health and the ability to react to variables in the physical and social contexts" (3) was used in Healthy People 2010 to describe health-related quality of life. Increased life expectancy and improved quality of life are two objectives of population health improvement.Reducing the gaps or discrepancies in these health outcomes among various populations is another objective. The populace (4). The figure shows a number of subgroups that have notable disparities or differences in mortality as well as health-related quality of life. Race and ethnicity, gender, location, and socioeconomic position (SES) are all highlighted here. Population health disparities also affect a wide variety of other subgroups. Not all distinctions are relevant to policy or are equally significant in all circumstances (5).Leran more about socioeconomic position https://brainly.com/question/28154864
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A nursing assessment of a client who has been diagnosed with neuroleptic malignant syndrome (nms) would most likely reveal which signs?
A person diagnosed with neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) would most likely reveal Signs like Hyperpyrexia, severe hypertension, and diaphoresis.
What is neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)?
Antipsychotic medication can cause the neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially fatal idiosyncratic reaction that is marked by fever, altered mental status, muscle rigidity, and autonomic dysfunction.
Extremely high fever (102 to 104 degrees F), an irregular pulse, an accelerated heartbeat (tachycardia), an increased rate of breathing (tachypnea), muscle rigidity, altered mental status, and dysfunction of the autonomic nervous system resulting in high or low blood pressure, profuse perspiration, and excessive sweating are common symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
A client with neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) would most likely exhibit symptoms including hyperpyrexia, extreme hypertension, and diaphoresis during a nursing assessment. The three primary signs of NMS—fever, hypertension, and diaphoresis—should be treated right away.
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A patient tells her doctor she is pregnant. the doctor would urge the woman to undergo chorionic villus sampling (cvs) if she:______.
If a patient tells her doctor she is pregnant, then the doctor would urge the woman to undergo chorionic villus sampling (CVS) if she previously had a baby with Tay Sachs disease.
What is Tay Sachs disease?Tay-Sachs is a genetic disease associated with chromosomal abnormalities that lead to faulty enzyme break down for certain types of fatty acids, which may be detected in the mother via a chorionic villus sampling.
In conclusion, if a patient tells her doctor she is pregnant, then the doctor would urge the woman to undergo chorionic villus sampling (CVS) if she previously had a baby with Tay Sachs disease.
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A nurse is required to assess a client reporting unusual vaginal discharge for bacterial vaginosis. for which classic manifestation of this condition should the nurse assess?
The nurse ought to look out for the symptom of a characteristic "stale fish" odor as a sign of the infection.
What is a discharge?The occurrence of bacterial va--ginosis is due to the fact that there is no more balance between the number of useful and harmful bacteria in the va--gina. This could be the result of an infection that affects a person.
We must not forget that there are bacteria that are normally found in the body. These bacteria that are normally found in the body is called the normal microflora of the body. As long as they are balanced, the person doesn't feel sick. A person only feels sick when there is an imbalance of the bacteria in the body.
When a person is suffering from bacterial va--ginosis, the nurse ought to look out for the symptom of a characteristic "stale fish" odor as a sign of the infection.
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Missing parts;
A nurse is required to assess a client reporting unusual va--ginal discharge for bacterial va--ginosis. For which classic manifestation of this condition should the nurse assess?
dysfunctional uterine bleeding
heavy yellow discharge
erythema in the vulvov
characteristic "stale fish" odor
The nurse provides care for a patient who experienced chest trauma. when the nurse assesses the right lung, which finding suggests a right-sided pneumothorax?
The nurse provides care for a patient who experienced chest trauma and when the nurse assesses the right lung, absence of breath sounds suggests a right-sided pneumothorax.
A pneumothorax indicates that one in all the lungs has folded and isn't functioning. Manifestations of a pneumothorax embrace symptom, faded movement of the concerned chest wall, faded or absent breath sounds on the affected facet, and hyperresonance on percussion.
As a result of no air movement happens with a pneumothorax, no breath sounds, together with crackles, are detected. Assessment findings can embrace hyperresonance on percussion.
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The nurse is seeing a client for the first time and has just checked the client's blood pressure. the nurse would consider the client prehypertensive if:_________
According to the research, the correct option is 121/89 mmHg. The nurse would consider the client prehypertensive if his blood pressure is 121/89 mmHg.
What is Prehypertension?It refers to a vascular risk factor, whose blood pressure figures should be monitored since it is slightly higher than normal, following medical recommendations for changes in lifestyle, so as not to develop hypertensive disease.
In this sense,a patiente that has systolic blood pressure [SBP] between 121 and 139 and diastolic blood pressure [DBP] between 81 and 89 mmHg is prehypertensive this condition may be due to high cholesterol levels, obesity and overweight, and diabetes mellitus.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, the correct option is 121/89 mmHg. The nurse would consider the client prehypertensive if his blood pressure is 121/89 mmHg.
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The symptoms krishna reports in conjunction with eating ice cream are most consistent with?
The symptoms Krishna reports in conjunction with eating ice cream are most consistent with Lactose Intolerance.
What is Lactose intolerance?Lactose intolerance is a very common disorder caused by a decreased ability to digest lactose, a sugar found in dairy products. The amount of lactose that each individual can tolerate before experiencing symptoms varies. Symptoms include abdominal pain, bloating, diarrhoea, gas, and nausea. These signs and symptoms typically appear 30 to 2 hours after consuming milk-based foods or beverages. The intensity of them frequently varies according to how much someone eats or drinks. Lactose intolerance does not affect the digestive system. Lactose intolerance is caused by a lack of the enzyme lactase in the small intestines, which breaks down lactose into glucose and galactose. The four categories are primary, secondary, developmental, and congenital.To learn more about lactose intolerance, refer to:
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The health care provider writes an order for a culture specimen to be collected from a patient with a dog bite wound. what would the nurse do first?
To identify the kind of specimen to be gathered, look over the order.
Canines have the ability to bite and scratch. Or you're walking down the street and suddenly a strange dog attacks you. Either way, you need to act quickly to treat the wound and reduce the risk of infection.Emergency medical care is needed for the day. A dog's small teeth can also tear skin, and the front teeth grab and crush flesh. The end result is a bare, jagged scar. Infected wounds are often very serious. Either way, he recommends seeing a doctor within eight hours of being bitten by a dog. The longer you wait, the greater the risk of infection. If you have diabetes or a weakened immune system, you are more likely to get infections.Therefore, review of the wound is necessary for specimen collection.
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The nurse is caring for a 38-year-old client with asthma who has been started on albuterol. what assessment finding should the nurse most likely attribute to adverse medication effects?
Explanation:
All asthma attacks require treatment with a quick-acting (rescue) inhaler such as albuterol.
Which action would the nurse include in the plan of care for a client who is being treated for a sexually transmitted infection and reports fever and irregular bleeding?
The action would the nurse include in the plan of care for a client who is being treated for a sexually transmitted infection and reports fever and irregular bleeding is consumption of painkillers abdominal palpation,
entire blood depend, cervical canal way of life taking prescription, antibiotics instructing about the dangerous effects of douching.
due to hepatitis B (HBV) and C (HCV) infections, STIs can result in cancer and chronic liver ailments.
The papillomavirus (HPV) is connected to genital cancer, and HIV reasons AIDS. extra than 75 percent of HIV cases are among young boys. Many medical experts delay remedy through failing to evaluate teenage sexual behavior and STI risks or to check for asymptomatic contamination in the course of health center appointments. STIs cannot be cured. due to their anatomy, many lady teenagers are greater liable to STIs.
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Which growth and developmental assessments would the nurse include when conducting a health maintenance visit for a 15-month-old toddler?
When conducting a health maintenance visit for a 15-month-old toddler the nurse would include weight, head circumference, and length.
What is the assessment of growth and development?Early childhood development is evaluated in four main areas: physical or physiologic, neurodevelopmental, cognitive, and psychosocial. The alterations in size, form, and function that occur with aging are included in this category.
What are the examples of growth and development?It is innate to want to develop.
PHYSICAL DEVELOPMENT: This includes the control and coordination of muscles as well as size and proportional growth. Examples include a youngster sitting up, rolling over, or elevating its head.
COGNITIVE DEVELOPMENT: The capacity of the mind or brain to receive and absorb information.
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Joan wants to find out whether she is really at a healthy weight. what procedure would be best for determining this?
An assessment of body composition
Precision and the target tissue of interest differ across measurements of body composition. Weight, stature, abdominal circumference, and skinfold measurements are among the anthropometric evaluations that are performed most frequently. Body density, total body water estimations, dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry, and bioelectrical impedance are more sophisticated techniques. Each methodology has advantages and disadvantages, thus there isn't a single approach that is always advised for determining body composition in obese people. To help the physician or researcher select ways that are suited for their circumstance, we give below the most popular approaches and offer advice through examples. We will be better able to assess and keep track of those who are dealing with the effects and comorbidities of obesity as technology advances and new body composition procedures are introduced.
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A nurse is caring for a client with suspected hyperparathyroidism. which condition may contribute to hyperparathyroidism?
A nurse is caring for a client with suspected hyperparathyroidism and chronic kidney failure is the condition which may contribute to hyperparathyroidism.
Hyperparathyroidism is wherever the parathyroid glands (in the neck, close to the thyroid gland) turn out an excessive amount of parathormone. There are four little glands that build this parathormone, that helps your body manage the calcium levels it desires.
Chronic kidney failure is the commonest condition behind secondary hyperparathyroidism. In some folks with long-run secondary hyperparathyroidism, typically from end-stage nephrosis, the parathyroid glands enlarge.
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The nurse is going to take a blood pressure on a client who has had a previous left mastectomy with lymph node dissection. what would be an appropriate action by the nurse?
The correct option is "B" i.e take the blood pressure in the right thigh.
What is left mastectomy?
The breast tissue, nipple, areola, and skin are all removed during a standard mastectomy (left), but not all of the lymph nodes. The entire breast, including the breast tissue, skin, areola, and nipple, as well as the majority of the underarm (axillary) lymph nodes, are removed during a modified radical mastectomy (right).
What is lymph node?
An immune system component with the form of a tiny bean. The lymph nodes in the body include lymphocytes, which are white blood cells that aid in the body's defense against disease and infection. They filter chemicals that pass through the lymphatic fluid. All over the body, lymph nodes number in the thousands.
Questions:
The nurse is going to take a blood pressure on a patient who has had a previous left mastectomy with lymph node dissection. What would be an appropriate action by the nurse?
A) take the blood pressure in the left arm
B) take the blood pressure in the right thigh
C) take the blood pressure in the right arm
D) take the blood pressure in the left thigh
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A patient presents with a high fever, stiff neck, petechial rash, and lethargy. Which medication should you expect to administer?
A patient presents with a high fever, stiff neck, petechial rash, and lethargy and the medication that you should expect to administer is vasopressors.
Vasopressors ar a strong category of medication that induce vasoconstriction and thereby elevate mean arterial pressure (MAP). Vasopressors dissent from inotropes, that increase viscus contractility; but, several medicine have each vasoconstrictor and inotropic effects.
The patient has classic signs and symptoms of meningococcal meningitis, which include high fever, is a very dangerous illness as a result of death will occur among hours of symptom look. You ought to acquire vascular access acceptable for potential infection treatment, as well as fluid revitalisation and vasopressure administration.
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Which finding should a nurse recognize as normal when assessing the ears of an elderly client?
Finding a nurse should recognize as normal when assessing the ears of an elderly client:
High-tone frequency loss
Among the Elderly, High-Frequency Hearing Loss is Common
High-frequency hearing loss in older persons is very typical. Higher pitches are affected by this hearing loss. High-frequency hearing loss is a symptom of the two most prevalent types of hearing loss: noise-induced hearing loss and age-related hearing loss. A recent study examines the prevalence of this type of hearing loss among seniors.
What is High-Frequency Hearing Loss?
High-pitched sounds are challenging to hear if you have high-frequency hearing loss. The voices of women and children as well as higher-pitched noises like the doorbell become more difficult to hear as a result. Speech understanding is also impacted by high-frequency hearing loss. Consonant noises typically occur at higher frequencies. It's nearly impossible to grasp what is being said without being able to hear all of the consonant sounds clearly.
The nurse uses an otoscope to examine an elderly client's ears and notices that the tympanic membranes have a hazy appearance with distinct landmarks. Before deciding that this is a normal result, an ear infection should be ruled out and balance and hearing issues should be evaluated.To learn more about Hearing loss, visit
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A client presents with fever, vomiting, and diarrhea. what should the nurse suspect are possible causes? select all that apply.
The possible causes viral bacterial toxin
Frequent symptoms of infections brought on by bacterial toxins or viruses include fever, vomiting, and diarrhea. Fever or vomiting are not signs of irritable bowel syndrome, chronic discomfort, or laxative misuse.
Causes of vomiting and diarrhea: -
Gastroenteritis
An intestinal ailment known as gastroenteritis can be brought on by viruses, bacteria, or parasites. Gastroenteritis is occasionally referred to as the stomach flu or a virus.
Additionally, some travelers have gastroenteritis, sometimes known as traveler's diarrhea.
Gastroenteritis caused by a virus is extremely infectious and spreads quickly between people. The norovirus is the most typical cause of gastroenteritis, and it takes 24-48 hours to incubate. This implies that a person can spread the sickness before realizing they are ill.
Gastroenteritis symptoms include:
abdominal cramps and agony
diarrheal diarrhea
dizziness or vomiting
Occasionally, a fever
The majority of patients recover from viral gastroenteritis in 1-3 days, according to the NIDDKTrusted Source. Some viruses, however, can persist for one to two weeks. Adenovirus and rotavirus are two of them, and they are typically younger children.
Foodborne illness
When someone consumes or drinks tainted food or water, food poisoning ensues. Food poisoning can be brought on by viruses, bacteria, or parasites, just like gastroenteritis. Food poisoning is not infectious, in contrast to gastroenteritis.
Oftentimes, food poisoning strikes abruptly. It may start to manifest 30 minutes to many weeksTrusted Source after ingesting the infected food, depending on the virus or bacterium a person ingests. The most typical signs are as follows:
stomach pain
nauseous and dizzy
diarrhea
fever
Most victims of food poisoning recover on their own. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)Trusted Source notes that those with poorer immune systems, elderly persons, children under the age of 5, pregnant women, and those with weakened immune systems are more prone to have consequences.
Medications
According to NIDDKTrusted Source cite the fact that vomiting and diarrhea are additional negative effects of several drugs. These include magnesium-containing antacids and antibiotics.
Chronic digestive issues can result from long-term antibiotic usage because it alters the gut flora in the large intestine. It could also make a Clostridium difficile infection more likely.
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witch foods are best as part of a cancer-prevention diet
The client in the scenario had a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. what would be the priority education topics to teach the patient?
The priority education topics to teach the patient which has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease include;
Remaining in upright position at least 2 hours after meals.Proper mastication of food and eating slowly.What is GERD?This is referred to as Gastroesophageal reflux disease which is characterized by bile and stomach acid irritating the food pipe lining due to the repeated back flow to the area.
The topics which should be taught is eating slowly and proper mastication so as to ensure that digestion occurs faster and sitting upright will also assists to prevent the back flow of the acids and enzymes.
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Identify three (3) adverse reactions the nurse should teach the client about prior to administering the varicella vaccine.
The three (3) adverse reactions the nurse should teach the client about prior to administering the varicella vaccine include:
RednessItchingFeverWhat is Varicella vaccine?This refers to the vaccine which helps in the prevention and protects the body against chicken pox. It is usually given in two doses for effective treatment and efficacy.
This type of vaccine give some symptoms when it enters into the bloodstream of the patient and involves fever, itching etc.
This is therefore the reason why the nurse should teach the client about it so they don't get scared when they experience them.
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Weber & kelly, health assessment in nursing, validating and documenting data:________
Weber & kelly, health assessment in nursing, validating and documenting data ,confirm/verify subjective and objective data collected are reliable and accurate.
What is Weber and kelly, health assessment in nursing?Health Assessment in Nursing has received praise for its innovative, systematic, and user-friendly approach to teaching RN-level students how to develop the thorough knowledge base and expert nursing assessment skills necessary for the precise collection of client data.
The Fifth Edition of the text maintains the text's hallmarks—in-depth, accurate information, an engaging continuing case study, and useful tools that aid students in developing the abilities they need to gather both subjective and objective data—but it also adds a variety of new chapters, a stronger emphasis on diversity and health assessment through the lifespan, over 150 new illustrations, and more than 300 new images of real registered nurses and nurse practitioners performing assessments.
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Which of the following are carbohydrates?
A. lipids
B. sugar
C. amino acids
D. starch
E. nucleic acids
Answer:
sugar is one of them
Explanation:
im not sure if they are asking for multiple answers, but sugar is correct.
A patient scheduled for a procedure to visualize the interior of a body cavity is having a(n)?
A patient scheduled for a procedure to visualize the interior of a body cavity is having a(n) endoscopy.
What is an endoscopy?Endoscopy is a diagnostic procedure in which it is possible to see inside the patient's body using an instrument called an endoscope. The endoscope has a camera attached to it which will show the inside of a cavity, hole or organ.
Through this endoscope you can see some detail inside the body, see the origin of any bleeding, take samples of abnormal tissues or extract foreign objects.
Therefore, we can confirm that a patient scheduled for a procedure to visualize the interior of a body cavity is having a(n) endoscopy.
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