8 x 46 = 8 x (40 + ______)
= (8 x 40) + (______ x _______)
= _______ + ________
= ________

Answer:

1.6

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

2/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

UJCTR

Go up to from the current letter to get the answer i think?

You can try finding the pattern behind the conversion.

The code for SHARP is UJCTR

Well it depends. There are infinite possibilities.

Most of the times, if its like a question from some exam or book etc, then there is certain simple pattern which you can see if focus. Otherwise, there may be too complex, or sometimes too simple, or sometimes moderately complex patterns.

For given case, you can see that the pattern is to take the third letter from the given letter from the English alphabet.

For B it was B - C - D, thus, D

For E it was E - F - G, thus, G

For A it was A - B - C, thus, C

For D it was D - E - F, thus, F

Similarly, we get:

For S it was S - T - U, thus, U

For H it was H - I - J, thus, J

For A it was A - B - C, thus, C

For R it was R - S - T, thus, T

For P it was P - Q - R, thus, R

Thus,

The code for SHARP is UJCTR

Learn more about character coding here:

https://brainly.com/question/17120657

Answer:

Yes. f(x) and g(x) are inverses of one another

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]f(x) = - \frac{1}{2} x - 2 \\ y = - \frac{1}{2} x - 2 \\ x = - \frac{1}{2} y - 2 \\ x + 2 = - \frac{1}{2} y \\ - 2(x + 2) = - \frac{1}{2} y \times - 2 \\ - 2x - 4 = y \\ {f }^{ - 1} (x) = - 2x - 4[/tex]

In step 1 we just copied the original function.

In step 2 we substituted y for f(x).

in step 3 we switched the variables.

in step 4 we added 2 to both sides.

in step 5 we multiply both sides by -2

In step 6 we solved for y.

In step 7 is just a fancy way of saying the inverse function f(x) = -2x - 4

Answer:

$16

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Simplify 12/45 which is now 4/15. Now we know $4 is made every 15 minutes.

2. Divide into 60(minutes) by the the 15. So 60÷15=4. Now we the number of times 15 can be divided into 60.

3. Multiply the ratio 4/15 by 4/4 to see how much is made in an hour. 4x4/15×4=16/60.

$16 is made in 60 minutes (1 hour).

Step-by-step explanation:

this is the answer

please follow me and mark me as a brainlist

Answer: D

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

-4x-4+3x+x-9 distributive property

combine like terms which would delete x, so the answer would be 5

The only set of side lengths that can form a triangle is 9, 4, 8.

Option A is the correct answer.

A triangle is a 2-D figure with three sides and three angles.

The sum of the angles is 180 degrees.

We can have an obtuse triangle, an acute triangle, or a right triangle.

We have,

In a triangle, the sum of the lengths of any two sides must be greater than the length of the third side.

Let's check if each of the given sets of side lengths satisfies this condition:

A.

9, 4, 8

9 + 4 > 8 ✓

9 + 8 > 4 ✓

4 + 8 > 9 ✓

All three inequalities are true, so these side lengths can form a triangle.

B.

14, 7, 6

14 + 7 > 6 ✓

14 + 6 > 7 ✓

7 + 6 > 14 ✗

The last inequality is false, so these side lengths cannot form a triangle.

C.

3, 8, 1

3 + 8 > 1 ✓

3 + 1 > 8 ✗

8 + 1 > 3 ✓

The second inequality is false, so these side lengths cannot form a triangle.

Therefore,

The only set of side lengths that can form a triangle is A. 9, 4, 8.

Learn more about triangles here:

https://brainly.com/question/25950519

#SPJ2

Usando la distribución binomial, se encuentra que hay una probabilidad de 0.0012 = 0.12% que realmente haya sido fruto de la coincidencia. El argumento para conseguir que te devuelvan el dinero seria de que 6 ítems defectuosos es un resultado inusualmente alto.

Para cada ítem, solo hay dos resultados posibles. O está defectuoso o no lo es. La probabilidad de que un ítem sea defectuoso es independiente de cualquier otro ítem, lo que significa que se utiliza la distribución binomial para resolver esta cuestión.

Distribuición binomial:

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

Los parámetros son:

La media de la distribución binomial es:

[tex]E(X) = np[/tex]

La desviación estándar de la distribución binomial es:

[tex]\sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)}[/tex]

Una medida se considera inusualmente alta si está más de 2.5 desviaciones estándar por encima de la media.

En este problema:

La probabilidad de que realmente haya sido fruto de la coincidencia es P(X = 6), o sea:

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 6) = C_{10,6}.(0.15)^{6}.(0.85)^{4} = 0.0012[/tex]

Probabilidad de 0.0012 = 0.12% que realmente haya sido fruto de la coincidencia.

Para el argumento:

[tex]E(X) = np = 10(0.15) = 1.5[/tex]

[tex]\sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)} = \sqrt{10(0.15)(0.85)} = 1.13[/tex]

[tex]6 > 1.5 + 2(1.13)[/tex], o sea, el argumento para conseguir que te devuelvan el dinero seria de que 6 ítems defectuosos es un resultado inusualmente alto.

Un problema similar es dado en https://brainly.com/question/22304471

Answer:The graph of y = f(x-2) is the graph of y = f(x) translated two units rightward.

So, since the point (9,2) lies on the graph of y = f(x), the point (11,2) lies on the graph of y = f(x-2).

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

answer

First we need to write system of 2 equations with 2 variables:

x*6 + y*12.5 = 34

x+y = 3.5

for substitution we express one of variables in one of equations and put it in other equation.

x = 3.5-y

(3.5 - y)*6 + 12.5*y = 34

21 - 6y + 12.5y = 34

6.5y = 13

y = 2

x = 3.5 - y = 3.5 - 2 = 1.5

she ran for 1.5 hours and biked for 2 hours.

check:

1.5*6 + 2*12.5 = 9 + 25 = 34 = 34

Answer:

B this is the smallest number

Answer:

30

Step-by-step explanation:

took test

Answer:

The answer is 9

Step-by-step explanation:

Cause when we multiplied 6 to 9 the answer will be 54

Answer:

x= 13

Step-by-step explanation:

can i please get branlist? if not thats okay.

Answer:

3/7 ÷ 2/7 = 3/2

3/4÷5/6 = 9/10

Step-by-step explanation:

The key rule to understanding how to divide fractions is...

KEEP SWITCH FLIP!!!

Basically, you keep the first fraction, switch the sign from division to multiplication, and flip the other fraction...

Here's how you would go about this:

3/7÷2/7

Keep 3/7 and switch ÷ to multiplication

3/7 · 2/7

Now flip 2/7 so it becomes 7/2

3/7 · 7/2

Now multiply across!

3 · 7 = 21

7 · 2 = 14

You get 21/14...but don't forget to simplify!! Divide 21 and 14 by 7 to get 3/2!

And now...for 3/4 ÷ 5/6, you do the exact same thing!

Keep...3/4

Switch...  ÷

Flip...5/6

And you should get:

3/4 · 6/5

Multiply across...

= 18/20

Simplify!

= 9/10

I hope this helps clarify any confusion you may have had!

Answer:

1 1/2 and 5/8

Step-by-step explanation:

problem 1

3/7 divided by 2/7

flip 2nd fraction then multiply is formula

so 3/7 times 7/2 which is 21/14 which is 1 7/14 simplify to 1 1/2

2

so 3/4 times 5/6 remeber formula  

3/4 times 6/5

18/20 multiply numerators and denominators

you could also answer as 0.9

Answer:

i don't know how to answer this

Answer:

there is no diagram so, it is not possible to solve this

The number of arrangements is an illustration of permutations.

The number of arrangement is 5040

The given parameter is:

[tex]n = 7[/tex] --- number of days

[tex]r = 7[/tex] --dinners for 7 days

So, the number of different arrangement is

[tex]^nP_r = \frac{n!}{(n - r)!}[/tex]

Substitute known values

[tex]^7P_7 = \frac{7!}{(7 - 7)!}[/tex]

[tex]^7P_7 = \frac{7!}{0!}[/tex]

[tex]^7P_7 = \frac{5040}{1}[/tex]

[tex]^7P_7 = 5040[/tex]

Hence, the number of arrangement is 5040

Read more about arrangements at:

https://brainly.com/question/15301090

Answer:

[tex]2x + 7 = 3x - 7 \\ 3x - 2x = 7 + 7 = 14 \\ x = 14 \\ 2x + 7 + 12y + 1 = 180 \\ 12y + 36 = 180 \\ 12y = 180 - 36 = 144 \\ y = 144 \div 12 = 12[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The usual thing to do is to try to get rid of one variable first. So to get rid of x, we multiply the first equation by 5.

5(x + y) = 2(5)

-5x - 5y = -10

---> 5x + 5y = 10

-5x - 5y = -10

---> 0 = 0

As you can see, everything cancels out. If the statement is true, then it is infinitely many solutions.

Answer:

(x+6)

Step-by-step explanation: remember gemdas

Groups

Exponents

Multipy

Divide

Add

Ssubtract

Step-by-step explanation:

with the height in a right triangle, we get 3 right triangles (the original one, and the 2 on both sides of the height). all 3 of these triangles are similar to each other.

that means (among other things) the ratios of 2 sides of one triangle must be the same ratio of the corresponding sides in the other triangle.

x/64 = 36/x

x² = 36×64

x = sqrt (36×64) = 6×8 = 48

long story short, x is the geometric mean value of the segments of the Hypotenuse.

geometric mean value means the nth root of the product of n numbers.

in our case - square root out of 2 numbers (the segment lengths).

Answer:

221.6667

Step-by-step explanation:

Step one is to add all of the players weight together.

- lets write an equation 3(201)+ 6(232)

Now simplify the expression, 603+1392. Add them together to get  1995 LBS

Step two is finding the mean

- The mean is adding up all the numbers and dividing by the amount. So there are 9 players and their total weight is 1995 LBS. take 1995 and divide by 9 to get your answer. This is 221.66667. Make sure to round if the question asks!!!!

Answer:

She can plant 24 flowers in each row.

Step-by-step explanation:

Greatest common factor of 48 and 72 is 24